Nokea
During an examination, the nurse would expect the cervical os of a woman who has never had children to appear:
- A. Stellate.
- B. Small and round.
- C. As a horizontal irregular slit.
- D. Everted.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Small and round. In a woman who has never had children, the cervical os is typically small and round due to the lack of previous childbirth stretching. This is considered normal and expected in nulliparous women.
A: Stellate - This is incorrect as a stellate appearance of the cervical os is more commonly associated with trauma or previous childbirth.
C: As a horizontal irregular slit - This is incorrect as an irregular slit appearance is more commonly seen in women who have had children.
D: Everted - This is incorrect as an everted cervical os is typically seen in conditions such as cervical ectropion or inflammation, not necessarily related to parity status.
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Cloxacillin is indicated in infections caused by the following organism(s) * a Staphylococci
- A. Streptococci
- B. Gonococci
- C. All of the above
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale:
1. Cloxacillin is a beta-lactam antibiotic effective against Staphylococci.
2. Streptococci are not within the spectrum of activity for Cloxacillin.
3. Gonococci are also not susceptible to Cloxacillin.
4. Therefore, the correct answer is A (Streptococci), as Cloxacillin is indicated only for Staphylococcal infections.
Summary:
Choice A is correct because Cloxacillin is effective against Staphylococci. Choices B and C are incorrect because Cloxacillin is not indicated for Gonococci or all of the organisms mentioned.
One of the primary functions of the kidney is to filter blood in order to remove substances that have no useful function in the body. Which of the following is the correct path of blood from the abdominal aorta to the inferior vena cava (IVC)?
- A. abdominal aorta – renal arteries – segmental arteries – interlobar arteries – arcuate arteries – interlobular arteries – efferent arteries – glomerulus – afferent arteries – peritubular capillaries – interlobular veins – arcuate veins – interlobar veins – renal veins – inferior vena cava
- B. abdominal aorta – renal arteries – interlobar arteries – segmental arteries – arcuate arteries – interlobular arteries – afferent arteries – glomerulus – efferent arteries – peritubular capillaries – interlobular veins – arcuate veins – interlobar veins – renal veins – inferior vena cava
- C. abdominal aorta – renal arteries – segmental arteries – interlobar arteries – arcuate arteries – interlobular arteries – afferent arteries – glomerulus – efferent arteries – peritubular capillaries – interlobular veins – arcuate veins – interlobar veins – renal veins – inferior vena cava
- D. abdominal aorta – renal arteries – interlobar arteries – interlobular arteries – segmental arteries – arcuate arteries – afferent arteries – glomerulus – efferent arteries – peritubular capillaries – interlobular veins – arcuate veins – interlobar veins – renal veins – inferior vena cava
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct path of blood flow in the kidney is from the abdominal aorta to the renal arteries, then to the segmental arteries, followed by interlobar arteries, arcuate arteries, interlobular arteries, afferent arteries, glomerulus, efferent arteries, peritubular capillaries, interlobular veins, arcuate veins, interlobar veins, renal veins, and finally to the inferior vena cava. Choice C accurately follows this sequential flow of blood, making it the correct answer.
Explanation for why other choices are incorrect:
- Choice A has the incorrect sequence of interlobar and interlobular arteries, which disrupts the correct flow.
- Choice B also has an incorrect sequence of interlobar and interlobular arteries, leading to an inaccurate path.
- Choice D has the interlobar and interlobular arteries in the wrong order, deviating from the correct blood flow pathway.
The penicillin G preparation with the longest duration of action is:
- A. Benzathine penicillin
- B. Sodium penicillin
- C. Potassium penicillin
- D. Procaine penicillin
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Benzathine penicillin. Benzathine penicillin has the longest duration of action among the choices because it is formulated as a salt that releases the active drug slowly over an extended period. The benzathine salt forms a depot at the injection site, leading to a sustained release of penicillin into the bloodstream. This results in a prolonged therapeutic effect and less frequent dosing compared to other penicillin preparations.
Summary:
- Choice B: Sodium penicillin has a shorter duration of action as it gets rapidly absorbed and eliminated from the body.
- Choice C: Potassium penicillin is not a standard form of penicillin and does not exist as a distinct preparation.
- Choice D: Procaine penicillin has an intermediate duration of action compared to benzathine penicillin due to the addition of procaine for local anesthesia, but it is not as long-acting.
A 30-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a complaint of a delayed period and abdominal discomfort. The nurse suspects pregnancy. Which of the following is the earliest and most reliable sign of pregnancy?
- A. A missed period.
- B. Positive urine pregnancy test.
- C. Changes in breast size.
- D. Abdominal tenderness and bloating.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Changes in breast size. This is because hormonal changes in early pregnancy can cause breast tenderness, swelling, and darkening of the areola. This typically occurs before a missed period or a positive urine pregnancy test. A missed period (choice A) is a common sign of pregnancy, but not the earliest. A positive urine pregnancy test (choice B) confirms pregnancy but may not be the earliest sign. Abdominal tenderness and bloating (choice D) can occur due to various reasons and are not specific to pregnancy. Therefore, changes in breast size are the earliest and most reliable sign of pregnancy in this scenario.
A patient with HIV-AIDS being treated with combined antiviral drugs and * immunosuppressive agents, develops an opportunistic infection caused by Pneumocystis caranii. Which of the following drugs most likely be used in the treatment of pulmonary infection caused by P, caranii?
- A. Metronidazole
- B. Carbenicillin
- C. Trimthoprim /Sulfametoxazole
- D. Penicillin G
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Trimethoprim/Sulfamethoxazole. This combination is the first-line treatment for Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia in patients with HIV-AIDS due to its efficacy against the organism. Trimethoprim inhibits bacterial folic acid synthesis, while sulfamethoxazole inhibits bacterial dihydrofolic acid formation. These drugs work synergistically to target different steps in the folic acid synthesis pathway of Pneumocystis carinii, leading to its effective eradication. Metronidazole (A) is used for anaerobic bacterial infections, Carbenicillin (B) is a penicillin derivative mainly used for Gram-negative bacteria, and Penicillin G (D) is not effective against Pneumocystis carinii.