Nokea
During neonatal resuscitation, dry wiping is aimed at
- A. Preventing hypothermia and facilitating tactile stimulation
- B. Preventing hemorrhage and clearing of the airway
- C. Preventing infection and facilitating tactile stimulation
- D. Improving the appearance and preventing infection
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Preventing hypothermia and facilitating tactile stimulation. Dry wiping during neonatal resuscitation helps prevent hypothermia by removing wetness from the baby's skin. It also facilitates tactile stimulation, which can help stimulate the baby's breathing.
Summary:
B: Preventing hemorrhage and clearing of the airway - Dry wiping does not prevent hemorrhage or clear the airway directly.
C: Preventing infection and facilitating tactile stimulation - While dry wiping can help prevent infection, its primary aim during neonatal resuscitation is to prevent hypothermia.
D: Improving the appearance and preventing infection - Dry wiping is not done for cosmetic reasons; its main purpose is to prevent hypothermia.
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T. S. is a 31-year-old female who is admitted following a catastrophic industrial accident. She had multiple injuries, and after a 10-day hospital stay that included several operations and attempts to save her, she is declared brain dead. She had an organ donor notation on her drivers license. Which of the following circumstances precludes her from serving as a liver donor?
- A. Encephalopathy
- B. Hepatitis C infection
- C. A long history of alcohol use
- D. Biliary cirrhosis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: A long history of alcohol use. In this case, the patient T. S. is brain dead following a catastrophic accident. Although she had an organ donor notation, her long history of alcohol use precludes her from serving as a liver donor. Chronic alcohol use can lead to liver damage and compromise the quality of the liver for transplantation. Encephalopathy (choice A) is a potential complication of liver disease, but it does not preclude her from being a liver donor. Hepatitis C infection (choice B) and biliary cirrhosis (choice D) may affect the liver, but they do not automatically disqualify her as a donor.
A client diagnosed with gestational diabetes at 24 weeks is scheduled for ANC care every
- A. Weekly up to 28 weeks
- B. Two weekly up to 28 weeks
- C. Four weekly up to 28 weeks
- D. Three weekly up to 28 weeks
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Four weekly up to 28 weeks. Gestational diabetes requires close monitoring of blood sugar levels and fetal well-being. ANC care every four weeks up to 28 weeks ensures proper management and early detection of any complications. Weekly or two weekly visits (options A and B) may be too frequent and unnecessary at this stage unless there are specific concerns. Three weekly visits (option D) may not provide adequate monitoring intervals. Therefore, option C is the most appropriate choice for the optimal management of gestational diabetes at this stage of pregnancy.
The drug of choice in the management of eclampsia is
- A. Phenobarbitone
- B. Calcium gluconate
- C. Magnesium sulphate
- D. Sodium bicarbonate
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Magnesium sulphate. It is the drug of choice in managing eclampsia due to its ability to prevent and control seizures. Magnesium sulfate is a central nervous system depressant that reduces neuronal excitability and neuromuscular transmission, thus preventing seizures. It also helps in lowering blood pressure and preventing complications. Phenobarbitone (A) is not the first-line treatment for eclampsia. Calcium gluconate (B) is used for calcium deficiency, not eclampsia. Sodium bicarbonate (D) is used to correct acidosis, not for managing eclampsia.
Bruised and oedematous appearance of the uterus, associated with placenta abruption is collectively referred to as
- A. Wernicke’s encephalopathy
- B. Uterine prolapse
- C. Couvelaire uterus
- D. Asherman’s syndrome
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Couvelaire uterus. This condition refers to the bruised and edematous appearance of the uterus associated with placental abruption. Placental abruption occurs when the placenta separates from the uterine wall prematurely, leading to bleeding and a compromised blood supply to the uterus. The bruised appearance is due to blood infiltrating the myometrium.
Explanation for other choices:
A: Wernicke’s encephalopathy - This is a neurological disorder caused by thiamine deficiency, not related to uterine issues.
B: Uterine prolapse - This is the descent or herniation of the uterus into or beyond the vaginal canal, not related to placental abruption.
D: Asherman’s syndrome - This is characterized by intrauterine adhesions or scar tissue, typically a result of uterine surgery, not associated with placental abruption.
The AGACNP is rounding on a patient following splenectomy for idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura. On postoperative day 2, a review of the laboratory studies is expected to reveal
- A. Increased MCV
- B. Increased Hgb
- C. Increased platelets
- D. Increased albumin
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: Post-splenectomy, platelet count typically drops temporarily, leading to a risk of bleeding.
Step 2: To compensate, the body increases hemoglobin (Hgb) levels to maintain oxygen-carrying capacity.
Step 3: Therefore, on postoperative day 2, an increased Hgb level is expected.
Summary: A is incorrect because MCV is not typically affected in this scenario. C is incorrect because platelet count usually decreases post-splenectomy. D is incorrect as albumin levels are not directly impacted by splenectomy for ITP.