Nokea
During surgery, the nurse observes a sudden change in the patient's level of consciousness. What is the nurse's immediate action?
- A. Administer a reversal agent for anesthesia
- B. Document the change in the patient's chart
- C. Check the patient's vital signs
- D. Notify the anesthesia provider immediately
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct immediate action for the nurse is to notify the anesthesia provider immediately (Option D). This is crucial because a sudden change in the patient's level of consciousness during surgery could indicate a serious issue related to anesthesia administration. Notifying the anesthesia provider promptly allows for quick assessment and intervention to address the underlying cause, potentially preventing complications or even saving the patient's life. Administering a reversal agent (Option A) without proper evaluation by the anesthesia provider could be dangerous. Documenting the change in the patient's chart (Option B) is important but not the most immediate action. Checking the patient's vital signs (Option C) is also important but may not provide immediate insight into the cause of the change in consciousness.
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Which of the following regulates the practice of the nursing profession?
- A. Department of Health
- B. Professional Regulation Commission
- C. Civil Service Commision
- D. Professional Regulatory Board of Nursing
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Professional Regulatory Board of Nursing. This board is specifically tasked with regulating the practice of the nursing profession, ensuring that nurses adhere to ethical and professional standards. The Department of Health (A) focuses on public health policies, not individual professional regulation. The Professional Regulation Commission (B) oversees various professions but does not specialize in nursing. The Civil Service Commission (C) deals with civil service matters, not professional nursing regulation. Therefore, the Professional Regulatory Board of Nursing is the most appropriate choice for regulating the nursing profession.
A nurse is teaching a patient about medication adherence. What approach by the nurse promotes patient empowerment and active participation in self-care?
- A. Providing written instructions and expecting compliance
- B. Demonstrating medication administration techniques
- C. Encouraging the patient to ask questions and express concerns
- D. Directing the patient to follow the healthcare provider's instructions
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because encouraging the patient to ask questions and express concerns promotes patient empowerment and active participation in self-care. This approach fosters communication, understanding, and collaboration between the nurse and patient, leading to better medication adherence. Choice A is incorrect as it lacks patient involvement. Choice B is helpful but does not necessarily empower the patient. Choice D is directive and does not encourage active participation or empowerment.
Which of the following conditions is characterized by inflammation of the glomeruli in the kidneys, leading to hematuria, proteinuria, and hypertension?
- A. Acute tubular necrosis
- B. Acute glomerulonephritis
- C. Chronic kidney disease
- D. Nephrotic syndrome
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Acute glomerulonephritis. Glomerulonephritis is characterized by inflammation of the glomeruli in the kidneys, leading to symptoms like hematuria (blood in urine), proteinuria (excess protein in urine), and hypertension (high blood pressure).
Acute tubular necrosis (A) involves damage to the renal tubules, not the glomeruli. Chronic kidney disease (C) refers to long-term kidney damage and may not always present with the classic symptoms mentioned. Nephrotic syndrome (D) involves excessive protein loss in urine but may not always involve inflammation of the glomeruli.
A patient presents with muscle weakness and fatigue. Upon further examination, it is revealed that the patient has decreased acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
- A. Myasthenia gravis
- B. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)
- C. Guillain-Barre syndrome
- D. Muscular dystrophy
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Myasthenia gravis. In myasthenia gravis, there is a decrease in acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction, leading to muscle weakness and fatigue. This occurs due to autoimmune destruction of these receptors. ALS (B) affects motor neurons, not acetylcholine receptors. Guillain-Barre syndrome (C) is an autoimmune disorder affecting peripheral nerves, not neuromuscular junctions. Muscular dystrophy (D) is a genetic disorder causing muscle degeneration, not affecting acetylcholine receptors.
A patient presents with palpitations, dizziness, and syncope. An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows ventricular tachycardia. Which cardiovascular disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
- A. Stable angina
- B. Unstable angina
- C. Atrial fibrillation
- D. Ventricular tachycardia
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Ventricular tachycardia. Ventricular tachycardia is a serious arrhythmia that can lead to palpitations, dizziness, and syncope due to the rapid and abnormal heart rhythm originating in the ventricles. This arrhythmia can be life-threatening if not promptly treated.
A: Stable angina is characterized by chest discomfort or pain due to reduced blood flow to the heart muscle, usually during physical exertion or stress. It does not typically present with palpitations, dizziness, or syncope.
B: Unstable angina is a more severe form of angina where symptoms occur even at rest. While it can lead to serious complications like heart attack, it does not commonly present with palpitations, dizziness, or syncope.
C: Atrial fibrillation is a common arrhythmia originating in the atria, leading to an irregular and often rapid heartbeat. While it can cause palpitations and dizziness,