Nokea
During the assessment, a client receiving a continuous infusion of heparin for deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is found to have a nosebleed. Which finding requires immediate action?
- A. The client's activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is 70 seconds.
- B. The client has developed a nosebleed.
- C. The client's blood pressure is 150/90 mm Hg.
- D. The client reports feeling lightheaded.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A nosebleed (B) in a client receiving heparin is a sign of heparin toxicity and requires immediate action. It indicates that the client is at risk of excessive bleeding. While a prolonged aPTT of 70 seconds (A) is worth monitoring, active bleeding takes precedence. Elevated blood pressure (C) and lightheadedness (D) are potential side effects of heparin but are not as urgently concerning as active bleeding.
You may also like to solve these questions
A client with cirrhosis and ascites is receiving furosemide 40 mg BID. The pharmacy provides 20 mg tablets. How many tablets should the client receive each day? [Enter numeric value only]
- A. 4 tablets
- B. 3 tablets
- C. 2 tablets
- D. 1 tablet
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the total daily dose of furosemide needed, 40 mg BID (twice a day) is 80 mg/day. Since each tablet is 20 mg, the client should receive a total of 4 tablets per day (80 mg · 20 mg per tablet = 4 tablets). Therefore, the correct answer is 4 tablets. Choice B (3 tablets) is incorrect because it does not provide the correct total daily dose. Choice C (2 tablets) is incorrect as it would not meet the required dose of 80 mg/day. Choice D (1 tablet) is incorrect as it would be insufficient to achieve the prescribed daily dose.
The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a diagnosis of pneumonia. Which assessment finding is most concerning?
- A. Coarse crackles in the lungs.
- B. Fever of 101.2°F (38.4°C).
- C. Productive cough with yellow sputum.
- D. Respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute (D) is most concerning because it indicates respiratory distress and requires immediate intervention. While coarse crackles (A), fever (B), and productive cough (C) are common findings in pneumonia, a high respiratory rate signifies a more severe condition that needs prompt attention to prevent respiratory failure. Monitoring the respiratory rate is crucial in assessing the severity of respiratory distress in pneumonia, as it can rapidly progress to respiratory failure if not managed promptly.
While instructing a male client's wife in the performance of passive range-of-motion exercises to his contracted shoulder, the nurse observes that she is holding his arm above and below the elbow. What nursing action should the nurse implement?
- A. Acknowledge that she is supporting the arm correctly.
- B. Encourage her to keep the joint uncovered to maintain warmth.
- C. Reinforce the need to grip directly under the joint for better support.
- D. Instruct her to grip directly over the joint for better motion.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The wife is correctly performing the passive range-of-motion exercises by holding the arm above and below the elbow. The nurse should acknowledge this correct technique (A). It is essential to keep the joint uncovered (B) during exercises, while ensuring the rest of the body remains covered for warmth and privacy. Choices (C) and (D) do not provide optimal support to the joint for effective movement.
What instruction should be provided for a UAP caring for a client with MRSA who has an order for contact precautions?
- A. Do not allow visitors until precautions are discontinued
- B. Wear sterile gloves when handling the client's body fluids
- C. Have the client wear a mask whenever someone enters the room
- D. Don a gown and gloves when entering the room
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct instruction for a UAP caring for a client with MRSA under contact precautions is to don a gown and gloves when entering the client's room. This precaution is essential to prevent the spread of MRSA and protect both the client and the healthcare worker from potential infection. Choice A is incorrect because visitors should not be restricted solely based on contact precautions. Choice B is incorrect as wearing sterile gloves is not necessary, standard precautions with regular gloves are sufficient. Choice C is incorrect because the client wearing a mask is not a standard practice for contact precautions; it is the healthcare worker who should take preventive measures.
A healthcare professional is working in an occupational health clinic when an employee walks in and states that he was struck by lightning while working in a truck. The client is alert but reports feeling faint. Which assessment will the healthcare professional perform first?
- A. Pulse characteristics
- B. Open airway
- C. Entrance and exit wounds
- D. Cervical spine injury
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When a person is struck by lightning, it can cause an electrical shock that may affect the heart rhythm. Therefore, assessing pulse characteristics is crucial as lightning can act as a natural defibrillator. Monitoring the pulse rate and regularity will help determine if there are any cardiac abnormalities that need immediate attention. Open airway, entrance and exit wounds, and cervical spine injury assessments are also important but assessing pulse characteristics takes precedence in this situation to address potential cardiac issues.