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When a student nurse is caught taking a copy of a client's medication administration record to help a friend prepare for the next day's clinical, what should the nurse respond first?
- A. Ask the nursing supervisor to meet with the student.
- B. Notify the student's clinical instructor of the situation.
- C. Ask the student if permission was obtained from the client.
- D. Explain that the records are hospital property and may not be removed.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct response when a student nurse is caught taking a copy of a client's medication administration record is to explain that the records are hospital property and cannot be removed. It is essential to educate the student about the confidentiality and security of patient information, emphasizing that even with the client's consent, such actions are unacceptable. Option A is not the immediate action needed, as addressing the student directly should come first. Option B involves notifying another party before addressing the student directly. Option C is incorrect because even if the client gave permission, patient records are confidential and cannot be shared without authorization.
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The client reports still being unable to sleep a week after learning progressive muscle relaxation techniques. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Instruct the client to add regular exercise to the daily routine.
- B. Determine if the client has been keeping a sleep diary.
- C. Encourage the client to continue the routine until sleep is achieved.
- D. Ask the client to describe the routine currently followed.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The nurse should first assess the client's adherence to the original instructions. By asking the client to describe the routine, the nurse can evaluate if the technique is being correctly implemented before considering further interventions. This choice is correct as it focuses on assessing the client's current practice. Option A is incorrect as adding regular exercise may not address the issue with the relaxation technique. Option B is incorrect as determining if the client has been keeping a sleep diary does not directly address the efficacy of the relaxation technique. Option C is incorrect as blindly encouraging the client to continue may not be the best approach without understanding how the technique is being practiced.
Prior to Mr. Landon undergoing a tracheostomy, what is the top nursing priority?
- A. Shaving the neck.
- B. Establishing a means of communication.
- C. Inserting a Foley catheter.
- D. Starting an IV.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Before Mr. Landon undergoes a tracheostomy, the top nursing priority is to establish a means of communication. This is essential to ensure that Mr. Landon can effectively communicate his needs during and after the procedure. Shaving the neck (Choice A) may be necessary for the tracheostomy but is not the top priority. Inserting a Foley catheter (Choice C) and starting an IV (Choice D) are important nursing interventions but are not the priority before a tracheostomy procedure, where communication is key for patient safety and comfort.
During evacuation of a group of clients from a medical unit because of a fire, the nurse observes an ambulatory client walking alone toward the stairway at the end of the hall. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Assign an unlicensed assistive personnel to transport the client via a wheelchair.
- B. Remind the client to walk carefully down the stairs until reaching a lower floor.
- C. Ask the client to help by assisting a wheelchair-bound client to a nearby elevator.
- D. Open the closest fire doors to facilitate the evacuation of ambulatory clients.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: During a fire evacuation, it is crucial for ambulatory clients to be reminded to walk carefully down the stairs. This helps ensure the safety of the client by preventing falls or injuries during the evacuation process. Directing the client to proceed cautiously down the stairs until reaching a lower floor provides necessary guidance to promote a safe evacuation process. Choice A is incorrect because assigning unlicensed assistive personnel to transport the client via a wheelchair may delay the evacuation process and increase the risk of injury. Choice C is incorrect as it distracts the ambulatory client from evacuating safely by involving them in assisting another client. Choice D is incorrect as opening fire doors may not be the most appropriate action at that moment; prioritizing safe evacuation procedures for ambulatory clients is essential.
The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a diagnosis of pneumonia. Which assessment finding is most concerning?
- A. Coarse crackles in the lungs.
- B. Fever of 101.2°F (38.4°C).
- C. Productive cough with yellow sputum.
- D. Respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute (D) is most concerning because it indicates respiratory distress and requires immediate intervention. While coarse crackles (A), fever (B), and productive cough (C) are common findings in pneumonia, a high respiratory rate signifies a more severe condition that needs prompt attention to prevent respiratory failure. Monitoring the respiratory rate is crucial in assessing the severity of respiratory distress in pneumonia, as it can rapidly progress to respiratory failure if not managed promptly.
How many drops per minute should a client weighing 182 pounds receive if a nurse mixes 50 mg of Nipride in 250 ml of D5W and plans to administer the solution at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/min? The drip factor is 60 gtt/ml.
- A. 31 gtt/min.
- B. 62 gtt/min.
- C. 93 gtt/min.
- D. 124 gtt/min.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: To determine the drops per minute for the client, first convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms: 182/2.2 = 82.73 kg. Calculate the dosage by multiplying 5 mcg by the client's weight in kg: 5 mcg/kg/min 82.73 kg = 413.65 mcg/min. Find the concentration of the solution in mcg/ml by dividing 250 ml by 50,000 mcg (50 mg): 250 ml/50,000 mcg = 200 mcg/ml. As the client needs 413.65 mcg/min and the solution is 200 mcg/ml, the client should receive 2.07 ml per minute. Finally, using the drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, multiply the ml per minute by the drip factor: 60 gtt/ml 2.07 ml/min = 124.28 gtt/min, which rounds to 124 gtt/min. Therefore, the client should receive 124 drops per minute. Choice D is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not reflect the accurate calculation based on the client's weight, dosage, concentration of the solution, and drip factor.