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During the 'Provide practical treatment' phase, what is the nurse expected to do?
- A. Greet the mother and inquire about the history
- B. Assess for danger signs
- C. Give appropriate treatment
- D. Check vital signs
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: During the 'Provide practical treatment' phase, the nurse is expected to give appropriate treatment to address the patient's needs. This involves implementing the necessary medical interventions or care based on the assessment findings and treatment plan. While greeting the mother, assessing for danger signs, and checking vital signs are important aspects of patient care, the focal point during this phase is to administer the specific treatment required to manage the patient's condition effectively.
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The mother of an 11-year-old girl confides to the nurse that her child has no interest in school activities, exercise, or even family outings. The most appropriate response by the nurse would be:
- A. I would recommend that she see a counselor at school.
- B. I would not worry; she will grow out of it.
- C. Many girls this age go through a time of malaise and disinterest.
- D. If she still feels the same way when you come back for the next well-child visit, I will recommend a therapist.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When a child shows a lack of interest in various activities, including school, exercise, and family outings, it is essential to address the underlying reasons. Recommending that the child see a counselor at school is crucial to explore potential issues and provide appropriate support and guidance. This approach can help identify any emotional, social, or behavioral concerns the child may be experiencing and facilitate early intervention and support. Choice B is incorrect because dismissing the mother's concerns and assuming the child will grow out of it without addressing the issue is not appropriate. Choice C is incorrect because while some children may go through phases of disinterest, it is essential to investigate further rather than generalizing. Choice D is incorrect because waiting until the next visit without taking proactive steps to address the current lack of interest may delay necessary support and intervention.
Atta, who weighs 20kg, has been prescribed amoxicillin 500 mg b.i.d. The drug information indicates a daily dose of amoxicillin at 50 mg/kg/day in two divided doses. What is the safest dose in milligrams for this child?
- A. 1000 mg
- B. 750 mg
- C. 500 mg
- D. 250 mg
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the safest dose of amoxicillin for Atta, we multiply the weight (20kg) by the daily dose (50 mg/kg/day) which equals 1000 mg/day. Since the dose is to be given in two divided doses, the safest dose for each administration would be 500 mg. Therefore, the correct answer is 1000 mg, as it aligns with the prescribed dose for this child based on weight and dosing guidelines. Choice B, 750 mg, is incorrect as it does not match the calculated daily dose. Choice C, 500 mg, is incorrect as it represents the safest dose for each administration, not the total daily dose. Choice D, 250 mg, is incorrect as it is below the calculated daily dose required for the child.
Beta-adrenergic agonists such as Salbutamol are given to Reggie, a child with asthma. Such drugs are administered primarily to do which of the following?
- A. Dilate the bronchioles
- B. Reduce secondary infections
- C. Decrease postnasal drip
- D. Reduce airway inflammation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Beta-adrenergic agonists like Salbutamol are used to dilate the bronchioles in asthma patients. This action helps in relieving bronchospasms and improving airflow to the lungs, making breathing easier for the individual. While reducing inflammation is an essential part of asthma management, beta-adrenergic agonists primarily work by relaxing the smooth muscles around the airways, leading to bronchodilation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because beta-adrenergic agonists are not primarily used to reduce secondary infections, decrease postnasal drip, or directly reduce airway inflammation in asthma patients.
What is a non-pharmacological management option for measles?
- A. Tepid sponging
- B. Oral hygiene
- C. Eye care
- D. N/A
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Tepid sponging is a non-pharmacological management option for measles. It helps reduce fever and discomfort by using lukewarm water to gently sponge the body. This method is commonly used to alleviate symptoms associated with measles. Oral hygiene and eye care are important for overall health but do not directly manage measles symptoms like tepid sponging does. Choice D, N/A, is incorrect as there are non-pharmacological management options available for measles.
In the Integrated Management of Neonatal and Childhood Illnesses, one of the things to look for is danger signs. Which of the following will you consider a danger sign in a child?
- A. The child vomits everything
- B. A child with diarrhea
- C. A child with headache
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'The child vomits everything.' Vomiting everything is considered a danger sign in a child as it can lead to dehydration and other serious complications. Recognizing this sign early can help in timely intervention and management of the child's condition. Choices B and C are incorrect as diarrhea and headache, while concerning, are not specific danger signs highlighted in the Integrated Management of Neonatal and Childhood Illnesses.