Nokea
During which phase of the community organizing process are the leaders or groups given training to develop their knowledge, skills, and attitudes in managing their own programs?
- A. Sustenance and strengthening phase
- B. Pre-entry phase
- C. Organizing-building phase
- D. Entry phase
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, the organizing-building phase. This phase involves providing training to leaders and groups to develop their knowledge, skills, and attitudes in managing their own programs. Choice A, the sustenance and strengthening phase, focuses more on maintaining and enhancing existing programs rather than training. Choice B, the pre-entry phase, occurs before actual organizing and training take place. Choice D, the entry phase, is about initiating the community organizing process, not specifically about training leaders and groups.
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A client was admitted with a diagnosis of pneumonia. When auscultating the client's breath sounds, the nurse hears inspiratory crackles in the right base. Temperature is 102.3 degrees Fahrenheit orally. What finding would the nurse expect?
- A. Flushed skin
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Mental confusion
- D. Hypotension
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Mental confusion. In this scenario, the client's high fever and pneumonia diagnosis indicate an infection. Infections, especially in older adults, can lead to mental confusion due to the body's systemic response to the infection. Flushed skin (choice A) is more commonly associated with fever but does not specifically relate to the client's condition. Bradycardia (choice B) and hypotension (choice D) are less likely findings in a client with pneumonia and a high fever; instead, tachycardia and increased blood pressure are more commonly seen in response to infection.
Which of the following measures the proportion of the population that exhibits a particular disease at a particular time and includes both new and old cases?
- A. proportionate morbidity rate
- B. case fatality rate
- C. incidence ratio
- D. prevalence ratio
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, prevalence ratio. Prevalence ratio measures the proportion of the population with a particular disease at a specific time, including both new and existing cases. Choice A, proportionate morbidity rate, is not a standard term and might confuse students. Choice B, case fatality rate, measures the proportion of deaths from a specific disease compared to the total number of cases but does not include both new and old cases. Choice C, incidence ratio, measures the rate of new cases of a disease in a specific population over a defined period, not considering existing cases.
Prior to initiating a community health program targeting teenage smoking, what information is most important for the nurse to obtain?
- A. The incidence of smoking among the teenage population in this community.
- B. The amount of available funding for tobacco prevention education programs.
- C. The target objectives for teenage smoking described by Healthy People 2020.
- D. Satisfaction data from programs that targeted the teenage population in this community.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most important information for the nurse to obtain before initiating a community health program targeting teenage smoking is the incidence of smoking among the teenage population in the community. Understanding the prevalence of smoking will help in designing effective intervention strategies. Choice B about funding, while important, is secondary to understanding the scope of the issue. Choice C, the target objectives from Healthy People 2020, may provide guidance but are not as crucial as knowing the local prevalence. Choice D, satisfaction data from previous programs, does not provide essential information for planning a new program.
The nurse is assessing a newborn the day after birth. A high-pitched cry, irritability, and lack of interest in feeding are noted. The mother signed her own discharge against medical advice. What intervention is appropriate nursing care?
- A. Reduce the environmental stimuli
- B. Offer formula every 2 hours
- C. Talk to the newborn while feeding
- D. Rock the baby frequently
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention is to reduce the environmental stimuli. In this scenario, the newborn is displaying signs of overstimulation and distress, which can be exacerbated by environmental factors. Offering formula every 2 hours (Choice B) may not address the underlying issue of overstimulation. Talking to the newborn while feeding (Choice C) and rocking the baby frequently (Choice D) may further stimulate the newborn, which is not appropriate in this case.
A client with a history of seizures is receiving phenytoin (Dilantin). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Hyperglycemia
- C. Gingival hyperplasia
- D. Hypokalemia
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Gingival hyperplasia. Phenytoin can cause gingival hyperplasia, characterized by an overgrowth of gum tissue. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client for this side effect as it can lead to oral health issues. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Phenytoin does not typically cause hypertension, hyperglycemia, or hypokalemia as common side effects.