During which phase of the community organizing process are the leaders or groups given training to develop their knowledge, skills, and attitudes in managing their own programs?
- A. Sustenance and strengthening phase
- B. Pre-entry phase
- C. Organizing-building phase
- D. Entry phase
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, the organizing-building phase. This phase involves providing training to leaders and groups to develop their knowledge, skills, and attitudes in managing their own programs. Choice A, the sustenance and strengthening phase, focuses more on maintaining and enhancing existing programs rather than training. Choice B, the pre-entry phase, occurs before actual organizing and training take place. Choice D, the entry phase, is about initiating the community organizing process, not specifically about training leaders and groups.
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Which of the following measures the proportion of the population that exhibits a particular disease at a particular time and includes both new and old cases?
- A. proportionate morbidity rate
- B. case fatality rate
- C. incidence ratio
- D. prevalence ratio
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, prevalence ratio. Prevalence ratio measures the proportion of the population with a particular disease at a specific time, including both new and existing cases. Choice A, proportionate morbidity rate, is not a standard term and might confuse students. Choice B, case fatality rate, measures the proportion of deaths from a specific disease compared to the total number of cases but does not include both new and old cases. Choice C, incidence ratio, measures the rate of new cases of a disease in a specific population over a defined period, not considering existing cases.
The nurse has just admitted a client with severe depression. From which focus should the nurse identify a priority nursing diagnosis?
- A. Nutrition
- B. Elimination
- C. Activity
- D. Safety
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In severe depression, the priority nursing diagnosis is safety. Individuals with severe depression are at risk of self-harm or suicide. Ensuring the client's safety by implementing measures to prevent harm to themselves or others is crucial. While nutrition, elimination, and activity are important aspects of care, ensuring the client's immediate safety takes precedence in this situation.
A newborn presents with a pronounced cephalic hematoma following a birth in the posterior position. Which nursing diagnosis should guide the plan of care?
- A. Pain related to periosteal injury
- B. Impaired mobility related to bleeding
- C. Parental anxiety related to knowledge deficit
- D. Injury related to intracranial hemorrhage
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct nursing diagnosis to guide the plan of care for a newborn with a pronounced cephalic hematoma following a birth in the posterior position is 'Parental anxiety related to knowledge deficit.' This is appropriate because the parents may be worried about the appearance and potential complications of the cephalic hematoma. They may require education and reassurance from the nurse. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not address the emotional needs of the parents and the knowledge deficit they may have regarding the condition.
During the beginning shift assessment of a client with asthma who is receiving oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 liters per minute, the nurse would be most concerned about which unreported finding?
- A. Pulse oximetry reading of 89%
- B. Crackles at the base of the lungs on auscultation
- C. Rapid shallow respirations with intermittent wheezes
- D. Excessive thirst with a dry cracked tongue
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rapid, shallow respirations with intermittent wheezes are concerning as they indicate a potential worsening of the client's asthma. This finding suggests airway narrowing, which can lead to respiratory failure. Immediate intervention is required to address this respiratory distress. A pulse oximetry reading of 89% is low and indicates hypoxemia, but the respiratory pattern described in option C takes priority as it directly reflects the client's respiratory status. Crackles at the base of the lungs suggest fluid accumulation, which is important but not as immediately critical as the respiratory distress in asthma. Excessive thirst and a dry cracked tongue may indicate dehydration, which is relevant but not as urgent as the respiratory compromise presented in option C.
A nurse working in a community health setting is performing primary health screenings. Which individual is at highest risk for contracting an HIV infection?
- A. A 17-year-old who is sexually active with numerous partners.
- B. A 45-year-old lesbian who has been sexually active with two partners in the past year.
- C. A 30-year-old cocaine user who inhales the drug and works in a topless bar.
- D. A 34-year-old male homosexual who is in a monogamous relationship.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. A 17-year-old who is sexually active with numerous partners is at the highest risk for contracting an HIV infection due to engaging in risky sexual behavior with multiple partners, increasing the likelihood of exposure to the virus. Choice B is less risky as the individual has had a relatively lower number of sexual partners in the past year. Choice C, although involving drug use, does not directly correlate with a higher risk of contracting HIV unless needles are shared. Choice D, a 34-year-old male homosexual in a monogamous relationship, has a lower risk compared to choice A as long as the relationship remains monogamous.