Nokea
Factors that can increase the chances of vaginitis are:
- A. urinary blockage, drug use, and stress
- B. use of antibiotics, pregnancy, and menopause
- C. puberty, exposure to HPV, and smoking/tobacco use
- D. menopause, stress, and steroid use
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Vaginitis is often caused by an imbalance in vaginal flora. Antibiotics can disrupt the natural balance, leading to overgrowth of harmful bacteria or yeast. Pregnancy alters hormone levels, making the vagina more susceptible to infection. Menopause decreases estrogen levels, thinning the vaginal walls and reducing beneficial bacteria.
A: Urinary blockage does not directly relate to vaginitis. Drug use and stress may weaken the immune system but are not direct causes of vaginitis.
C: Puberty, HPV exposure, and smoking/tobacco use do not directly increase the chances of vaginitis. HPV is a viral infection, not a direct cause of vaginitis.
D: While menopause can increase the risk of vaginitis due to hormonal changes, stress and steroid use are not primary factors in developing vaginitis.
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In preparation for business trip abroad the doctor was prescribed a histoschizontocidal antimalarial drug as a personal means of disease prevention. What drug was given to the doctor?
- A. Chingamin
- B. Mefloquine
- C. Biseptol (Co-Trimoxazole)
- D. Quinine
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Mefloquine. Mefloquine is a histoschizontocidal antimalarial drug commonly prescribed for prevention of malaria in travelers. It is effective against the liver stage of the malaria parasite, which is crucial for preventing the development of the disease. Chingamin (A) is not a commonly used antimalarial drug. Biseptol (C) is a combination antibiotic and is not effective against malaria parasites. Quinine (D) is primarily used for treating malaria, not preventing it, and it is not specifically histoschizontocidal.
A child entering the school for the first time was given Mantoux test in order to determine if there was a need for revaccination. The reaction was negative. What is the meaning of this test result?
- A. No cell-mediated immunity to tuberculosis
- B. Availability of cell-mediated immunity to tuberculosis
- C. No antibodies to the tuberculosis bacteria
- D. No anti-toxic immunity to tuberculosis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Availability of cell-mediated immunity to tuberculosis. A negative Mantoux test indicates the presence of an immune response to the TB bacteria, as the test measures the body's delayed hypersensitivity reaction to TB antigens. This means the child has been exposed to TB in the past or has been vaccinated, resulting in the development of cell-mediated immunity against TB.
Incorrect choices:
A: No cell-mediated immunity to tuberculosis - This is incorrect as a negative Mantoux test actually indicates the presence of cell-mediated immunity.
C: No antibodies to the tuberculosis bacteria - Mantoux test measures cell-mediated immunity, not antibody response.
D: No anti-toxic immunity to tuberculosis - Mantoux test does not assess anti-toxic immunity, it specifically measures cell-mediated immunity.
Which bacteria is responsible for causing the disease known as tuberculosis?
- A. Mycobacterium leprae
- B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
- C. Streptococcus pneumoniae
- D. Clostridium botulinum
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Mycobacterium tuberculosis. This bacterium is responsible for causing tuberculosis as it specifically infects the lungs and can spread through the air. Mycobacterium leprae (choice A) causes leprosy, not tuberculosis. Streptococcus pneumoniae (choice C) is a common cause of pneumonia but not tuberculosis. Clostridium botulinum (choice D) causes botulism, a different disease unrelated to tuberculosis. Therefore, the unique characteristics and infection pattern of Mycobacterium tuberculosis make it the correct choice for the bacteria responsible for causing tuberculosis.
A gynaecologist was examining a patient and revealed symptoms of genital tract inflammation. A smear from vagina contains pyriform protozoa with a spine, flagella at their front; there is also an undulating membrane. What disease can be suspected?
- A. Urogenital trichomoniasis
- B. Lambliasis
- C. Intestinal trichomoniasis
- D. Toxoplasmosis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Urogenital trichomoniasis. The presence of pyriform protozoa with a spine, flagella at their front, and an undulating membrane in a vaginal smear indicates Trichomonas vaginalis, the causative agent of urogenital trichomoniasis. Trichomonas vaginalis is sexually transmitted and causes vaginal discharge, itching, and inflammation. Lambliasis (choice B) is caused by Giardia lamblia, which is not characterized by the described features. Intestinal trichomoniasis (choice C) is caused by a different species, Tritrichomonas foetus, and presents with diarrhea in cattle. Toxoplasmosis (choice D) is caused by Toxoplasma gondii and typically affects the brain and other organs, not the genital tract.
F pili:
- A. Are made up of nucleotides
- B. Are transferred to the recipient cell
- C. Are proteins on the F+ donor that are attached to specific receptors of the recipient's cell wall
- D. Are part of the recipient cell for attachment to the donor cell
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because F pili are proteins on the F+ donor cell that are attached to specific receptors on the recipient cell's cell wall. This is essential for the transfer of genetic material during conjugation. Choice A is incorrect because F pili are not made up of nucleotides, but rather proteins. Choice B is incorrect because F pili are not transferred to the recipient cell itself, but they facilitate the transfer of genetic material. Choice D is incorrect because F pili are not part of the recipient cell, but rather part of the donor cell for attachment to the recipient cell.