Features differentiating renal tubular acidosis type II from type I include:
- A. Increased anion gap
- B. Nephrocalcinosis
- C. Urinary pH can be lowered < 5.5 in ammonium chloride loading test in type I
- D. Aminoaciduria
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In type I renal tubular acidosis, urinary pH can be lowered below 5.5 during an ammonium chloride loading test, unlike in type II.
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The nurse is teaching a client with glomerulonephritis about self-care. Which dietary recommendations should the nurse encourage the client to follow?
- A. Increase intake of high-fiber foods, such as bran cereal
- B. Restrict protein intake by limiting meats and other high-protein foods
- C. Limit oral fluid intake to 500 ml per day
- D. Increase intake of potassium-rich foods such as bananas or cantaloupe
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Reducing protein intake helps decrease the workload on the kidneys, which is beneficial in glomerulonephritis.
The clinic nurse reviews the record of a child just seen by the health care provider and diagnosed with suspected aortic stenosis. The nurse expects to note documentation of which clinical manifestation specifically found in this disorder?
- A. Pallor
- B. Hyperactivity
- C. Exercise intolerance
- D. Gastrointestinal disturbances
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Exercise intolerance is a common clinical manifestation of aortic stenosis due to the heart's inability to pump sufficient blood during increased physical activity.
An adult female with multiple sclerosis (MS) falls while walking to the bathroom. On transfer to the intensive care unit, she is confused and has had projectile vomiting twice. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Determine client's last dose of corticosteroids
- B. Determine neurological baseline prior to the fall
- C. Administer a PRN IV antiemetic as prescribed
- D. Complete head to toe neurological assessment.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The symptoms suggest increased intracranial pressure or a neurological emergency. A thorough neurological assessment is necessary to identify the cause and guide further interventions.
In which congenital heart defect (CHD) would the nurse need to take upper and lower extremity BPs?
- A. Transposition of the great vessels
- B. Aortic stenosis (AS)
- C. Coarctation of the aorta (COA)
- D. Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: COA causes increased blood pressure and strong pulses in the upper extremities with lower-than-expected BP and weak pulses in the lower extremities.
During a routine well child exam on a 5-year-old child, a grade II/VI, harsh, late systolic ejection murmur at the upper left sternal border that transmits to both lung fields is auscultated. The child has normal growth and development. What will the nurse practitioner suspect?
- A. Aortic stenosis (AS)
- B. Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)
- C. Pulmonic stenosis
- D. Tricuspid atresia
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Pulmonic stenosis may be asymptomatic with a murmur as described above.
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