Nokea
Fetal distress is indicated by:
- A. Meconium staining of liquor
- B. Arrhythmias
- C. Tachycardia
- D. Bradycardia
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because bradycardia is a key indicator of fetal distress. The other options (a, b, c, e) are less specific or not primary indicators.
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Which drug should not be used to control secondary hypertension in a sexually active adolescent female who uses intermittent birth control?
- A. Beta blockers
- B. Calcium channel blockers
- C. ACE inhibitors
- D. Diuretics
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers are teratogenic and should be avoided in sexually active adolescents using birth control.
Which food is most important for the nurse to encourage a male client with osteomalacia to include in his daily diet?
- A. Fortified milk and cereals
- B. Lean red meat and poultry
- C. Fresh fruits and vegetables
- D. Whole grains and legumes
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Fortified foods rich in vitamin D and calcium are crucial for the client with osteomalacia to help in bone mineralization.
A nurse assesses an older adult client who has multiple chronic diseases. The client’s heart rate is 48 beats/min. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Document the finding in the chart.
- B. Initiate external pacing.
- C. Assess the client’s medications.
- D. Administer 1 mg of atropine.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A heart rate of 48 beats/min (bradycardia) in an older adult with multiple chronic diseases may be due to medication side effects. Assessing the client’s medications is the first step to determine if any drugs are contributing to the bradycardia.
A pulmonary embolus occurring while the patient is on the combined oral contraceptive pill:
- A. Is more likely in anti-thrombin III deficiency
- B. Is more likely in protein C deficiency
- C. Is an absolute contraindication to the combined pill
- D. Is an increased risk in smokers
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Anti-thrombin III deficiency increases the risk of thromboembolic events, including pulmonary embolism, especially in patients on the combined oral contraceptive pill.
A client's telemetry monitor indicates ventricular fibrillation (VF). After delivering one counter shock, the nurse resumes chest compression. After another minute of compressions, the client's rhythm converts to supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) on the monitor. At this point, what is the priority intervention for the nurse?
- A. Prepare for transcutaneous pacing
- B. Deliver another defibrillator shock
- C. Administer IV Epinephrine per ACLS protocol
- D. Give IV dose of adenosine rapidly over 1-2 seconds
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: SVT can be treated by rapidly administering adenosine to restore normal sinus rhythm.