Nokea
Following delivery of a newborn, the 21-year-old mother is experiencing mild vaginal bleeding. You note that her heart rate has increased from 90 to 120 beats/min and she is diaphoretic. In addition to administering high-flow oxygen, treatment should include:
- A. treating for shock and uterine massage during transport.
- B. uterine massage and transport.
- C. placing her on her left side and transport.
- D. internal vaginal pads and treating for shock during transport.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the mother is showing signs of postpartum hemorrhage with increased heart rate, diaphoresis, and mild vaginal bleeding. The correct approach involves treating for shock by addressing hypovolemia and providing uterine massage to help control bleeding. Administering high-flow oxygen is essential. Therefore, the most appropriate option is to treat for shock and perform uterine massage during transport to manage the postpartum hemorrhage effectively.
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When inserting an oropharyngeal airway in a small child, what is the preferred method?
- A. Insert the airway with the curvature towards the roof of the mouth and then rotate it 180 degrees.
- B. Insert the airway as you would in an adult, but use an airway that is one size smaller than usual.
- C. Depress the tongue with a tongue blade and insert the airway with the downward curve facing the tongue.
- D. Open the airway with the tongue-jaw lift maneuver and insert the airway until slight resistance is met.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When inserting an oropharyngeal airway in a small child, it is crucial to depress the tongue with a tongue blade and insert the airway with the downward curve facing the tongue. This technique helps in maintaining an open airway and preventing obstruction by the tongue. Placing the airway with the curve facing the roof of the mouth or using a smaller size is not recommended for small children, as it may not effectively keep the airway patent. The tongue-jaw lift maneuver is not the preferred method for inserting an oropharyngeal airway in small children.
Which of the following parameters is the LEAST reliable when assessing the perfusion status of a 2-year-old child?
- A. Capillary refill time
- B. Presence of peripheral pulses
- C. Skin color and temperature
- D. Systolic blood pressure
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Systolic blood pressure is the least reliable parameter when assessing perfusion status in a 2-year-old child. In young children, blood pressure measurements can be variable, affected by factors like anxiety or crying. Capillary refill time, presence of peripheral pulses, and skin color and temperature are more reliable indicators of perfusion status in this age group.
When preventing cardiac arrest in infants and small children, the primary focus should be on:
- A. Providing immediate transport.
- B. Ensuring adequate ventilation.
- C. Keeping the child warm.
- D. Avoiding upsetting the child.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct approach to prevent cardiac arrest in infants and small children is to ensure adequate ventilation. In these cases, maintaining proper oxygenation and ventilation is crucial for sustaining life. Providing immediate transport, keeping the child warm, or avoiding upsetting the child are important considerations but ensuring adequate ventilation takes precedence in preventing cardiac arrest and supporting the child's vital functions.
Why is a prolapsed umbilical cord dangerous?
- A. The cord may be wrapped around the baby's neck, causing strangulation.
- B. The cord might pull the placenta from the uterine wall during delivery.
- C. The baby's head may compress the cord, cutting off its supply of oxygen.
- D. The mother may die of hypoxia due to compromised placental blood flow.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A prolapsed umbilical cord is dangerous because the baby's head may compress the cord, cutting off its supply of oxygen. This compression can lead to oxygen deprivation, potentially causing significant harm to the baby. Immediate medical intervention is crucial in such cases to prevent adverse outcomes.
A 30-year-old woman is 22 weeks pregnant with her first child. She tells you that her rings are not fitting as loosely as they usually do and that her ankles are swollen. Her blood pressure is 150/86 mm Hg. She is MOST likely experiencing:
- A. a condition unrelated to pregnancy.
- B. gestational diabetes.
- C. a hypertensive emergency.
- D. preeclampsia.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The symptoms of swollen ankles, tight rings, and elevated blood pressure in a pregnant woman at 22 weeks gestation are concerning for preeclampsia. Preeclampsia is characterized by high blood pressure and signs of organ damage, commonly seen with symptoms such as swelling (edema) and protein in the urine. It is crucial to monitor and manage preeclampsia promptly as it can lead to severe complications for both the mother and the baby.