Following the change of shift report, when can or should the nurse alter or modify the plan?
- A. halfway through the shift
- B. at the end of the shift before handing over
- C. when needs change
- D. after the top-priority tasks have been completed
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'when needs change.' The nurse should be flexible and adjust the plan as necessary when the needs of the patients change. This ensures that care is provided effectively and efficiently. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because altering the plan based on time intervals, solely at the end of the shift, or after completing top-priority tasks may not align with the current needs of the patients.
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An adult who had been abused as a child is discussing the group therapy program. Which statement indicates that the client has gained insight?
- A. "I think I was a lonely child because I could not tell anyone about my abuse."?
- B. "I am now aware of how deep-seated my anger is. Before, I did not realize I was angry."?
- C. "The program has given me the courage to tell my mother how I felt about her role in my hurt."?
- D. "There are so many people just like me, who are just normal people that had bad things happen to them."?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer demonstrates insight gained by the client regarding their emotional state. Recognizing deep-seated anger that was previously unrecognized indicates progress in understanding their emotions and the impact of past abuse. Choice A reflects a sense of loneliness due to an inability to share about the abuse, which does not directly address emotional insight. Choice C shows progress in addressing relationships but does not specifically relate to emotional awareness. Choice D acknowledges shared experiences but does not reflect personal emotional growth or insight.
The nursing assistant hitting the client in the long-term care facility can be charged with:
- A. Negligence
- B. Tort
- C. Assault
- D. Malpractice
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Assault is the appropriate charge in this scenario. Assault involves physically striking or touching someone inappropriately. Negligence (Choice A) refers to failing to provide proper care for the client. Tort (Choice B) is a wrongful act committed against the client or their property. Malpractice (Choice D) is the failure to perform an act that should have been done or the improper performance of an act resulting in harm to the client. Since the nursing assistant physically struck the client, the charge of assault is most fitting.
The nurse is caring for a client scheduled for a surgical repair of a sacular abdominal aortic aneurysm. Which assessment is most crucial during the preoperative period?
- A. Assessment of the client's level of anxiety
- B. Evaluation of the client's exercise tolerance
- C. Identification of peripheral pulses
- D. Assessment of bowel sounds and activity
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most crucial assessment during the preoperative period for a client scheduled for surgical repair of a sacular abdominal aortic aneurysm is the identification of peripheral pulses. This is essential because during surgery, the aorta will be clamped, potentially affecting blood circulation to the kidneys and lower extremities. Monitoring peripheral pulses helps assess circulation to the lower extremities, ensuring adequate perfusion. While assessing the client's anxiety level (choice A) is important, it is not as critical as monitoring peripheral pulses in this case. Evaluating exercise tolerance (choice B) is not typically recommended preoperatively for this specific condition. Assessing bowel sounds and activity (choice D) is also relevant but takes a lower priority compared to identifying peripheral pulses in this scenario.
A client arrives in the emergency room with a possible fractured femur. The nurse should anticipate an order for:
- A. Trendelenburg position
- B. Ice to the entire extremity
- C. Buck's traction
- D. An abduction pillow
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is Buck's traction. This intervention is used to realign the fractured femur, reduce spasms, and alleviate pain. Placing the client in the Trendelenburg position is inappropriate for a femur fracture, making answer A incorrect. While ice may be used post-repair, applying it to the entire extremity is unnecessary, so answer B is wrong. An abduction pillow is typically employed following a total hip replacement, not for a fractured femur, rendering answer D incorrect.
A client is given an opiate drug for pain relief following general anesthesia. The client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression. The physician is likely to order the administration of:
- A. naloxone (Narcan)
- B. labetalol (Normodyne)
- C. neostigmine (Prostigmin)
- D. thiothixene (Navane)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is naloxone (Narcan). Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression and somnolence. In this scenario, the client's extreme somnolence and respiratory depression suggest an opioid overdose, making naloxone the appropriate choice to counteract these effects. Labetalol (Normodyne) is a nonselective beta-blocker used to treat hypertension, not opioid overdose. Neostigmine (Prostigmin) is a cholinesterase inhibitor used to reverse neuromuscular blockade, not opioid-induced respiratory depression. Thiothixene (Navane) is an antipsychotic medication used to treat schizophrenia and is not indicated for opioid overdose.