Nokea
How can medication bound to protein affect drug availability?
- A. enhanced drug availability
- B. rapid distribution of the drug to receptor sites
- C. less availability to produce desired medicinal effects
- D. increased metabolism of the drug by the liver
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Medication bound to protein reduces the availability of the drug to produce desired medicinal effects because only unbound drugs can effectively bind to active receptor sites. When a drug is bound to protein, it cannot bind with receptor sites, limiting its therapeutic impact. Choice A is incorrect because drug availability is reduced when it is bound to protein. Choice B is incorrect as rapid distribution to receptor sites is not possible if the drug is bound to protein and cannot bind with receptors. Choice D is incorrect as metabolism does not increase when the drug is bound to protein; the liver first needs to separate the drug from the protein before metabolism can occur.
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The physician prescribes captopril (Capoten) 25mg po tid for the client with hypertension. Which of the following adverse reactions can occur with administration of Capoten?
- A. Tinnitus
- B. Persistent cough
- C. Muscle weakness
- D. Diarrhea
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A persistent cough might be related to an adverse reaction to captopril (Capoten). Tinnitus (choice A) and diarrhea (choice D) are not commonly associated adverse reactions of captopril. Muscle weakness (choice C) might occur initially but is not considered a common adverse effect of captopril. Therefore, the correct answer is B, persistent cough, as it is a known adverse reaction to captopril.
In a brief treatment program for a client who was raped, what is a realistic short-term goal?
- A. Identify all psychosocial problems.
- B. Eliminate the client's enticing behaviors.
- C. Resolve feelings of trauma and fear.
- D. Verbalize feelings about the event.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, a realistic short-term goal for the client who was raped and starting a brief treatment program is to verbalize feelings about the event. This goal promotes the expression of emotions, which is crucial in the healing process. Identifying all psychosocial problems is too broad and not typically achievable in a brief treatment program. Eliminating the client's enticing behaviors is not a suitable short-term goal as the focus should be on emotional recovery. While resolving feelings of trauma and fear is important, verbalizing feelings about the event is a more specific and achievable goal in the short term.
To decrease a client's use of denial and increase the client's expression of feelings, what should the nurse do?
- A. Tell the client to stop using the defense mechanism of denial
- B. Positively reinforce each expression of feelings
- C. Instruct the client to express feelings
- D. Challenge the client each time denial is used
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The most appropriate approach to decrease a client's use of denial and promote the expression of feelings is to positively reinforce each expression of feelings. This method helps the client feel supported and validated, encouraging them to continue expressing their emotions openly. Positively reinforcing the expression of feelings can help reduce the need for denial as the client learns that their emotions are acknowledged and accepted. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A of telling the client to stop using denial is too directive and may be ineffective. Instructing the client to express feelings (Choice C) lacks positive reinforcement, and challenging the client each time denial is used (Choice D) can create a confrontational environment that hinders therapeutic progress.
In performing a psychosocial assessment, the nurse begins by asking questions that encourage the client to describe problematic behaviors and situations. The next step is to elicit the client's
- A. feelings about what has been described.
- B. thoughts about what has been described.
- C. possible solutions to the problem.
- D. intent in sharing the description.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In performing a psychosocial assessment, the nurse follows a structured approach, starting with encouraging the client to describe problematic behaviors and situations. The next step is to elicit the client's thoughts about what has been described. This step helps gather more assessment data and understand how the client interprets the situation. Asking about feelings, exploring possible solutions, and understanding the client's intent in sharing the description are more complex processes that come later in the assessment. Therefore, the correct next step after describing behaviors and situations is to inquire about the client's thoughts.
A client is given an opiate drug for pain relief following general anesthesia. The client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression. The physician is likely to order the administration of:
- A. naloxone (Narcan)
- B. labetalol (Normodyne)
- C. neostigmine (Prostigmin)
- D. thiothixene (Navane)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is naloxone (Narcan). Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression and somnolence. In this scenario, the client's extreme somnolence and respiratory depression suggest an opioid overdose, making naloxone the appropriate choice to counteract these effects. Labetalol (Normodyne) is a nonselective beta-blocker used to treat hypertension, not opioid overdose. Neostigmine (Prostigmin) is a cholinesterase inhibitor used to reverse neuromuscular blockade, not opioid-induced respiratory depression. Thiothixene (Navane) is an antipsychotic medication used to treat schizophrenia and is not indicated for opioid overdose.