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For a client in addisonian crisis, it would be very risky for a nurse to administer:
- A. potassium chloride.
- B. hydrocortisone.
- C. normal saline solution
- D. fludrocortisone.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: potassium chloride. In Addisonian crisis, the adrenal glands do not produce enough cortisol and aldosterone. Potassium levels are typically elevated in Addisonian crisis due to decreased aldosterone. Administering potassium chloride can further increase potassium levels, leading to life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. Hydrocortisone (B) is essential to replace cortisol, normal saline solution (C) helps with volume resuscitation, and fludrocortisone (D) replaces aldosterone. Administering potassium chloride would exacerbate the hyperkalemia in Addisonian crisis.
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A client on hemodialysis is complaining of muscle weakness and numbness in his legs. His lab results are: Na 136 mEq/L, K 5.9 mEq/L, Cl 100 mEq/L, ca 8.5 mg/dl. Which electrolyte imbalance is the client suffering from?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypocalcemia
- C. Hypernatremia
- D. Hypochloremia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperkalemia. In hemodialysis, potassium levels can be elevated due to impaired renal excretion. High potassium can lead to muscle weakness and numbness. The client's K level of 5.9 mEq/L is above the normal range (3.5-5.0 mEq/L), confirming hyperkalemia. Na, Cl, and Ca levels are within normal limits, ruling out hypernatremia, hypochloremia, and hypocalcemia as the client's primary electrolyte imbalance. Monitoring and managing hyperkalemia are crucial to prevent life-threatening complications like cardiac arrhythmias.
The nurse is caring for a client who’s hypoglycemic. This client will have a blood glucose level:
- A. Below 70mg/dl
- B. Between 70 and 120mg/dl
- C. Between 120 and 180mg/dl
- D. Over 180mg/dl A1 PASSERS TRAINING, RESEARCH, REVIEW & DEVELOPMENT COMPANY MEDICAL SURGICAL NURSING SET P
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, below 70mg/dl, for a hypoglycemic client. Hypoglycemia is defined as low blood glucose levels, typically below 70mg/dl. Symptoms of hypoglycemia include confusion, sweating, shakiness, and palpitations. Treating hypoglycemia involves providing the client with a fast-acting source of glucose to raise their blood sugar levels quickly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they indicate normal or elevated blood glucose levels, which are not characteristic of hypoglycemia. It is crucial for the nurse to recognize and promptly address hypoglycemia to prevent potential complications.
Which of the following parts of neuron transmits impulses away from the cell body?
- A. Dendrite
- B. Neurolemma
- C. Axon
- D. Synapse
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Axon. The axon is the part of the neuron that transmits impulses away from the cell body towards other neurons or target cells. It is coated with a myelin sheath, which helps speed up the transmission of impulses. Dendrites (A) receive signals from other neurons, the neurolemma (B) is the outermost layer of the myelin sheath, and the synapse (D) is the junction between two neurons where neurotransmitters are released. Therefore, the axon is the only part of the neuron specifically responsible for transmitting impulses away from the cell body.
What are the periods in life when the need for iron increases?
- A. Pregnancy
- B. Infancy
- C. Old age
- D. Male reproductive years
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pregnancy. During pregnancy, the need for iron increases significantly to support the growth of the fetus and to prevent maternal anemia. Iron is essential for the production of hemoglobin and for oxygen transport in the blood. In contrast, infants require iron for rapid growth and development, making choice B partially correct. Choice C (Old age) and choice D (Male reproductive years) are incorrect as the need for iron typically decreases in old age and remains relatively stable during male reproductive years.
The client is taking phenyton (Dilantin) for seizure control. A sample is drawn to determine the serum drug level, and the nurse reviews the results. Which of the following would indicate a therapeutic serum drug range?
- A. 5 to 10 mcg/ml.
- B. 20 to 30 mcg/ml.
- C. 10 to 20 mcg/ml.
- D. 30 to 40 mcg/ml.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A (5 to 10 mcg/ml) because this range is typically considered therapeutic for phenytoin (Dilantin) for seizure control. Levels below 5 mcg/ml may be subtherapeutic, leading to inadequate seizure control. Levels above 10 mcg/ml can increase the risk of toxicity. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are outside the optimal therapeutic range, leading to either ineffective treatment (B, C) or an increased risk of adverse effects (D). Monitoring drug levels helps ensure the medication's effectiveness while minimizing side effects.