Nokea
Fraternal twins are delivered by your Rh-negative patient. Twin A is Rh-positive and twin B is Rh-negative. Prior to administering Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM), the nurse should determine the results of the
- A. direct Coombs test of twin A.
- B. direct Coombs test of twin B.
- C. indirect Coombs test of the mother.
- D. transcutaneous bilirubin level for both twins.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, indirect Coombs test of the mother. This test is crucial to determine if the mother has developed antibodies against the Rh-positive blood of twin A. If the test is positive, it indicates sensitization has occurred, making RhoGAM necessary to prevent hemolytic disease in future pregnancies. Direct Coombs tests of the twins (choices A and B) are not relevant in this scenario as they assess for antibodies already attached to the red blood cells. Transcutaneous bilirubin levels (choice D) are used to monitor jaundice, not Rh incompatibility.
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A patient who had premature rupture of the membranes (PROM) earlier in the pregnancy at 28 weeks returns to the labor unit 1 week later complaining that she is now in labor. The labor and birth nurse performs the following assessments. The vaginal exam is deferred until the physician is in attendance. The patient is placed on electronic fetal monitoring (EFM) and a baseline FHR of 130 bpm is noted. No contraction pattern is observed. The patient is then transferred to the antepartum unit for continued observation. Several hours later, the patient complains that she does not feel the baby move. Examination of the abdomen reveals a fundal height of 34 cm. Muscle tone is no different from earlier in the hospital admission. The patient is placed on the EFM and no fetal heart tones are observed. What does the nurse suspect is occurring?
- A. Placental previa
- B. Active labor has started
- C. Placental abruption
- D. Hidden placental abruption
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hidden placental abruption. In this scenario, the patient had a history of PROM at 28 weeks, which puts her at risk for placental abruption due to the weakened membranes. The sudden onset of decreased fetal movement and absence of fetal heart tones on EFM indicate a potential emergency. The fundal height of 34 cm suggests the baby is at term, ruling out placental previa or preterm labor. Active labor typically presents with contractions, which are not observed in this case. Placental abruption can be concealed, leading to a sudden decrease in fetal well-being. The nurse should suspect hidden placental abruption and notify the physician immediately for further evaluation and intervention.
A patient who was pregnant had a spontaneous abortion at approximately 4 weeks' gestation. At the time of the miscarriage, it was thought that all products of conception were expelled. Two weeks later, the patient presents at the clinic office complaining of “crampy†abdominal pain and a scant amount of serosanguineous vaginal drainage with a slight odor. The pregnancy test is negative. Vital signs reveal a temperature of 100°F, with blood pressure of 100/60 mm Hg, irregular pulse 88 beats/minute (bpm), and respirations, 20 breaths per minute. Based on this assessment data, what does the nurse anticipate as a clinical diagnosis?
- A. Ectopic pregnancy
- B. Uterine infection
- C. Gestational trophoblastic disease
- D. Endometriosis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Uterine infection. The patient's presentation with crampy abdominal pain, scant serosanguineous vaginal drainage, negative pregnancy test, and vital signs indicating fever, hypotension, and tachycardia are indicative of a uterine infection, most likely post-miscarriage. The timing of symptoms 2 weeks after miscarriage aligns with the typical onset of infection. The absence of products of conception being expelled completely could have led to retained tissue causing infection. Ectopic pregnancy (A) would typically present with severe abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, and positive pregnancy test. Gestational trophoblastic disease (C) would present with irregular vaginal bleeding and elevated hCG levels. Endometriosis (D) is a chronic condition characterized by pelvic pain and abnormal menstrual bleeding, not an acute post-miscarriage complication.
Which factor will increase the risk for hypotonic uterine dystocia in a postpartum client?
- A. Twin gestation
- B. Gestational anemia
- C. Hypertonic contractions
- D. Gestational hypertension
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Twin gestation. In twin gestation, there is an increased risk of hypotonic uterine dystocia due to the higher likelihood of uterine overdistention. This can lead to decreased uterine muscle tone and ineffective contractions, resulting in difficulty in the progress of labor.
Summary:
B: Gestational anemia does not directly increase the risk for hypotonic uterine dystocia.
C: Hypertonic contractions are associated with hyperactivity of the uterus, not hypotonic uterine dystocia.
D: Gestational hypertension may lead to other complications but is not directly related to hypotonic uterine dystocia in a postpartum client.
Which laboratory finding is indicative of DIC?
- A. Decreased fibrinogen
- B. Increased platelets
- C. Increased hematocrit
- D. Decreased thromboplastin time
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased fibrinogen. In DIC, there is widespread activation of the coagulation cascade, leading to consumption of clotting factors like fibrinogen. This results in decreased levels of fibrinogen in the blood. Increased platelets (B) are seen in early stages, but they decrease as consumption continues. Increased hematocrit (C) is a nonspecific finding. Decreased thromboplastin time (D) is not indicative of DIC, as it would typically be prolonged due to consumption of clotting factors.
Which postpartum patient requires further assessment?
- A. G4 P4 who has had four saturated pads during the last 12 hours
- B. G1 P1 with Class II heart disease who complains of frequent coughing
- C. G2 P2 with gestational diabetes whose fasting blood sugar level is 100 mg/dL
- D. G3 P2 postcesarean patient who has active herpes lesions on the labia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because a postpartum patient with Class II heart disease complaining of frequent coughing requires further assessment due to the risk of exacerbating heart failure. Coughing can increase cardiac workload, leading to potential complications. Choice A may indicate excessive postpartum bleeding, which would require immediate intervention. Choice C has a slightly elevated blood sugar level but is not immediately concerning. Choice D may require monitoring and possibly treatment for active herpes lesions, but it is not as urgent as assessing a patient with heart disease and coughing.