Nokea
Fraternal twins are delivered by your Rh-negative patient. Twin A is Rh-positive and twin B is Rh-negative. Prior to administering Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM), the nurse should determine the results of the
- A. direct Coombs test of twin A.
- B. direct Coombs test of twin B.
- C. indirect Coombs test of the mother.
- D. transcutaneous bilirubin level for both twins.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: indirect Coombs test of the mother. This test is crucial to determine if the mother has developed antibodies against the Rh-positive blood of twin A, which could lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn in future pregnancies. A direct Coombs test of twin A or twin B is not relevant in this scenario as it does not provide information about the mother's antibody status. Transcutaneous bilirubin levels are used to monitor jaundice in newborns and not related to Rh incompatibility. In summary, the indirect Coombs test of the mother is the most relevant test to assess the risk of hemolytic disease in future pregnancies.
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A patient, who delivered her third child yesterday, has just learned that her two school-age children have contracted chickenpox. What should the nurse tell her?
- A. Her two children should be treated with acyclovir before she goes home from the hospital.
- B. The baby will acquire immunity from her and will not be susceptible to chickenpox.
- C. The children can visit their mother and baby in the hospital as planned but must wear gowns and masks.
- D. She must make arrangements to stay somewhere other than her home until the children are no longer contagious.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: She must make arrangements to stay somewhere other than her home until the children are no longer contagious.
1. The patient's newborn is at risk of contracting chickenpox from the infected children.
2. Chickenpox can be severe in newborns due to their immature immune systems.
3. It is crucial to protect the newborn by ensuring they are not exposed to the virus.
4. Staying elsewhere until the children are no longer contagious will prevent transmission to the newborn.
Incorrect choices:
A: Acyclovir is not recommended for prophylactic treatment in this situation.
B: Immunity is not automatically transferred from the mother to the baby for chickenpox.
C: Allowing the infected children to visit with precautions is not sufficient to protect the newborn.
A clinic nurse is providing patient education prior to a patients scheduled palliative radiotherapy to her spine. At the completion of the patient teaching, the patient continues to ask the same questions that the nurse has already addressed. What is the plausible conclusion that the nurse should draw from this?
- A. The patient is not listening effectively.
- B. The patient is noncompliant with the plan of care.
- C. The patient may have a low intelligence quotient or a cognitive deficit.
- D. The patient has not achieved the desired learning outcomes.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. The plausible conclusion the nurse should draw is that the patient has not achieved the desired learning outcomes.
1. The patient's repeated questions indicate a lack of understanding despite the nurse's teaching efforts.
2. This suggests that the patient has not grasped the information provided.
3. It does not necessarily mean the patient is not listening effectively, noncompliant, or has low intelligence.
4. The focus should be on reassessing the teaching methods and providing additional support to help the patient achieve the desired learning outcomes.
A patient has returned to the floor after undergoing a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). The patient has a continuous bladder irrigation system in place. The patient tells you he is experiencing bladder spasms and asks what you can do to relieve his discomfort. What is the most appropriate nursing action to relieve the discomfort of the patient?
- A. Apply a cold compress to the pubic area.
- B. Notify the urologist promptly.
- C. Irrigate the catheter with 30 to 50 mL of normal saline as ordered.
- D. Administer a smooth-muscle relaxant as ordered.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale: Administering a smooth-muscle relaxant is the most appropriate nursing action to relieve bladder spasms post-TURP. The smooth-muscle relaxant helps relax the bladder muscles, reducing spasms and discomfort. Applying a cold compress (choice A) may provide temporary relief but won't address the underlying cause. Notifying the urologist (choice B) is important but not the immediate action for relieving spasms. Irrigating the catheter with normal saline (choice C) may not effectively address the spasms. Administering a smooth-muscle relaxant is the best choice for prompt relief.
When administering a patients eye drops, the nurse recognizes the need to prevent absorption by the nasolacrimal duct. How can the nurse best achieve this goal?
- A. Ensure that the patient is well hydrated at all times.
- B. Encourage self-administration of eye drops.
- C. Occlude the puncta after applying the medication.
- D. Position the patient supine before administering eye drops.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Occlude the puncta after applying the medication. By occluding the puncta after applying the eye drops, the nurse can prevent the medication from draining into the nasolacrimal duct and being absorbed systemically. This is important to ensure that the medication remains in the eye and exerts its intended local effect.
Choice A (Ensure that the patient is well hydrated at all times) is incorrect because hydration status does not directly prevent absorption through the nasolacrimal duct.
Choice B (Encourage self-administration of eye drops) is incorrect as the method of administration does not prevent absorption through the nasolacrimal duct.
Choice D (Position the patient supine before administering eye drops) is incorrect as it does not address the specific issue of preventing absorption through the nasolacrimal duct.
A patient with HIV is admitted to the hospital because of chronic severe diarrhea. The nurse caring for this patient should expect the physician to order what drug for the management of the patients diarrhea?
- A. Zithromax
- B. Sandostatin
- C. Levaquin
- D. Biaxin
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sandostatin. This drug is a somatostatin analog that can help manage HIV-related chronic severe diarrhea by reducing gastrointestinal secretions. Sandostatin works by inhibiting the release of various hormones and neurotransmitters in the gut, which can help control diarrhea in HIV patients.
Rationale:
A: Zithromax is an antibiotic that is not typically used to manage chronic severe diarrhea in HIV patients.
C: Levaquin is also an antibiotic and not indicated for managing diarrhea in HIV patients.
D: Biaxin is another antibiotic and not the appropriate choice for managing chronic severe diarrhea in HIV patients.
In summary, Sandostatin is the correct choice as it specifically targets the underlying cause of diarrhea in HIV patients by reducing gastrointestinal secretions, whereas the other options are antibiotics that are not indicated for this purpose.