Nokea
Greatly reduced eliminations and red rosy appearance of face are among the features of
- A. Hypothermia neonatorum
- B. Hypoglycemia neonatorum
- C. Hyperthermia neonatorum
- D. Hypocalcemia neonatorum
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Certainly! The correct answer is C: Hyperthermia neonatorum. Greatly reduced eliminations and a red rosy appearance of the face are indicative of hyperthermia, which is an elevated body temperature. This condition can lead to dehydration and other complications.
A: Hypothermia neonatorum is characterized by low body temperature, not elevated.
B: Hypoglycemia neonatorum refers to low blood sugar levels, not related to the symptoms mentioned.
D: Hypocalcemia neonatorum is a deficiency of calcium in the blood, not associated with the given features.
In summary, hyperthermia neonatorum is the correct answer due to the specific symptoms presented, while the other choices do not align with the described features.
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Psychosocial adversities are among the predisposing factors of puerperal psychosis.
- A. TRUE
- B. FALSE
- C. -
- D. -
Correct Answer: T
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale:
1. Puerperal psychosis is a severe mental health condition occurring postpartum.
2. Psychosocial adversities, such as stress or lack of social support, can trigger or exacerbate mental health issues.
3. Therefore, psychosocial adversities can be predisposing factors for puerperal psychosis.
4. Option A (TRUE) is correct as it aligns with the established relationship between psychosocial factors and mental health.
Summary: Option A is correct because psychosocial adversities can indeed contribute to the development of puerperal psychosis, making it a relevant predisposing factor. Options B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not provide any rationale or evidence to support their validity.
A correct statement about an acute small for gestational age neonate is
- A. Entire body is proportionately reduced for gestational age
- B. Head is disproportionately larger than the rest of the body
- C. The body is disproportionately larger than the baby’s head
- D. The neonate appears plumpy with a scaphoid shaped abdomen
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because an acute small for gestational age neonate will have all body parts proportionately reduced in size compared to a normal gestational age baby. This is due to intrauterine growth restriction. Choice B is incorrect because the head is not disproportionately larger. Choice C is incorrect as it states the body is larger than the head, which is not the case in SGA babies. Choice D is incorrect as SGA babies typically appear thin with a scaphoid abdomen, not plumpy.
R. S. is a 66-year-old female with Cushings syndrome due to an ACTH-producing pituitary tumor. The tumor is readily isolated by imaging, and the patient had an uneventful surgery. When seeing her in follow-up, the AGACNP anticipates
- A. Rapid reversal of symptoms, with good pituitary function
- B. Transient rebound release of remaining pituitary hormones
- C. Markedly improved dexamethasone suppression test
- D. Hyponatremia and compensatory SIADH
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Transient rebound release of remaining pituitary hormones. After surgical removal of the ACTH-producing pituitary tumor in Cushing's syndrome, there may be a transient rebound release of remaining pituitary hormones due to relief of negative feedback from the tumor. This can lead to a temporary increase in pituitary hormone levels before normalization.
Rationale:
1. Rapid reversal of symptoms with good pituitary function (Choice A) is less likely as it takes time for the pituitary gland to recover and resume normal hormone production post-surgery.
2. Markedly improved dexamethasone suppression test (Choice C) is not expected immediately after surgery as it may take time for the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis to normalize.
3. Hyponatremia and compensatory SIADH (Choice D) are unlikely post-operatively in Cushing's syndrome as removal of the ACTH-producing tumor should lead to normalization of
Wernicke’s encephalopathy and Mallory-Weiss syndrome are among the complications of
- A. Placenta praevia
- B. Hypertensive disorders
- C. Vitamin B deficiency
- D. Hyperemesis gravidarum
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why D is correct:
1. Hyperemesis gravidarum is severe nausea and vomiting during pregnancy.
2. Prolonged vomiting can lead to electrolyte imbalances and nutritional deficiencies.
3. Vitamin B deficiency, specifically thiamine, can result in Wernicke’s encephalopathy.
4. Mallory-Weiss syndrome can occur due to repeated retching and vomiting.
5. Therefore, hyperemesis gravidarum can lead to both Wernicke’s encephalopathy and Mallory-Weiss syndrome.
Summary:
A: Placenta praevia is related to abnormal placental placement, not vomiting.
B: Hypertensive disorders are associated with high blood pressure, not vomiting-related complications.
C: Vitamin B deficiency can lead to Wernicke’s encephalopathy but is not directly caused by hyperemesis gravidarum.
The commonest major cause of primary postpartum haemorrhage is
- A. Trauma of the genital tract
- B. Blood coagulation disorder
- C. Prolonged 3rd stage
- D. Atony of the uterus
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: Atony of the uterus is the most common cause of primary postpartum hemorrhage due to inadequate uterine contractions.
Step 2: Trauma of the genital tract can lead to bleeding but is not as common as atony of the uterus in postpartum hemorrhage.
Step 3: Blood coagulation disorder can contribute to excessive bleeding but is not the primary cause of postpartum hemorrhage.
Step 4: Prolonged 3rd stage can result in postpartum hemorrhage but is typically secondary to uterine atony.