Nokea
Hiccup is due to
- A. Increased inspiration
- B. Irritation of Phrenic nerve
- C. Expanded stomach
- D. Acidity in the stomach
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because hiccups are caused by the irritation of the phrenic nerve, which controls the diaphragm muscle responsible for breathing. When the nerve is irritated, it causes the diaphragm to contract involuntarily, leading to the characteristic sound of hiccups.
Choice A (Increased inspiration) is incorrect as hiccups are not caused by increased inspiration but rather by involuntary contractions of the diaphragm.
Choice C (Expanded stomach) is incorrect as hiccups are not directly related to the size of the stomach but rather to nerve irritation.
Choice D (Acidity in the stomach) is incorrect as hiccups are not primarily caused by stomach acidity, but by nerve irritation leading to diaphragm contractions.
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Air that remains in conducting passages and doesn't participate in gas exchange is termed
- A. vital capacity
- B. minimal volume
- C. residual volume
- D. anatomic dead space
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: anatomic dead space. Anatomic dead space refers to the air in the conducting passages (such as trachea, bronchi) that does not reach the alveoli for gas exchange. This space only serves as a pathway for air to move in and out of the lungs. Vital capacity (A) is the maximum amount of air that can be exhaled after a maximum inhalation. Minimal volume (B) is not a recognized term in respiratory physiology. Residual volume (C) is the amount of air left in the lungs after a maximal exhalation and is not specifically related to the air in conducting passages.
The nurse reading a tuberculin skin test (TST) on a new employee who lives in the Midwest,
is 20-years-old, and has no known history of contact with any people with tuberculosis (TB).
The nurse should interpret the reading as positive if the area around the injection site has an
induration of how many millimeters?
- A. 0 mm
- B. 5 mm
- C. 10 mm
- D. 15 mm
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D (15 mm) because for a low-risk individual like the new employee, a TST is considered positive if the induration is 15 mm or greater. This is based on the guidelines from the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) for interpreting TST results in individuals without known risk factors. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because an induration of 0 mm, 5 mm, or 10 mm, respectively, would not meet the criteria for a positive TST in this low-risk individual. It is important to consider the individual's risk factors and follow established guidelines to accurately interpret TST results.
When caring for a male patient who has just had a total laryngectomy, the nurse should plan to:
- A. Encourage oral feeding as soon as possible.
- B. Develop an alternative communication method.
- C. Keep the tracheostomy cuff fully inflated.
- D. Keep the patient flat in bed.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Develop an alternative communication method. After a total laryngectomy, the patient loses the ability to speak. Developing an alternative communication method such as using a communication board or electronic device is crucial for effective communication. Encouraging oral feeding (A) is not appropriate initially due to the risk of aspiration. Keeping the tracheostomy cuff fully inflated (C) can obstruct airflow, and keeping the patient flat in bed (D) can lead to respiratory complications. Developing an alternative communication method is essential for the patient's emotional well-being and quality of life.
Which of the following symptoms should a nurse assess in a client when implementing interventions for trauma to the upper airway?
- A. Pain when talking
- B. Burning in the throat
- C. Increased nasal swelling
- D. Presence of laryngospasm
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Laryngospasm is a serious symptom that requires immediate attention in upper airway trauma. A (pain when talking) and B (burning in the throat) are less urgent. C (increased nasal swelling) is a local finding but not life-threatening.
A nurse educator is reviewing the implications of the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve with regard to the case of a current patient. The patient currently has normal hemoglobin levels, but significantly decreased SaO2 and PaO2 levels. What is an implication of this physiological state?
- A. The patient's tissue demands may be met, but she will be unable to respond to physiological stressors.
- B. The patient's short-term oxygen needs will be met, but she will be unable to expel sufficient CO2.
- C. The patient will experience tissue hypoxia with no sensation of shortness of breath or labored breathing.
- D. The patient will experience respiratory alkalosis with no ability to compensate.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because even though the patient has normal hemoglobin levels, the significantly decreased SaO2 and PaO2 levels indicate that the hemoglobin is not effectively carrying oxygen to the tissues. This leads to a situation where the tissue demands for oxygen may be met at baseline, but the patient will be unable to respond to physiological stressors that require increased oxygen delivery.
Choice B is incorrect because it focuses on short-term oxygen needs and CO2 expulsion, which are not directly related to the implications of the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve in this case.
Choice C is incorrect because decreased SaO2 and PaO2 levels would lead to tissue hypoxia, which would likely result in sensations of shortness of breath or labored breathing as the body tries to compensate for the lack of oxygen.
Choice D is incorrect because decreased PaO2 levels would not lead to respiratory alkalosis. The body would likely try to compensate by increasing respiratory rate to improve oxygenation.