Nokea
How can maternal nutrition affect fetal development?
- A. Ensures proper growth
- B. Prevents birth defects
- C. Reduces the risk of preterm birth
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Maternal nutrition supports fetal growth, prevents birth defects, and reduces preterm birth risks.
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Which one of the following positions is SAFEST for a woman in labor with a cord prolapse?
- A. Lithotomy
- B. Trendelenburg
- C. Fowler’s
- D. Prone
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The Trendelenburg position helps reduce pressure on the umbilical cord during prolapse.
He has had 1 L of NSS infused by emergency medical services. His vital signs reveal a pulse of 128 bpm and a blood pressure of 8860 mm Hg. With respect to his hypotension, the AGACNP recognizes that
- A. Vasopressors are contraindicated in traumatic head injury
- B. Hypotension doubles the risk of mortality from traumatic head injury
- C. His blood pressure is likely a physiologic response to traumatic head injury
- D. Stabilizing the head injury is more important that identifying the cause of hypotension
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the patient's low blood pressure is likely a physiologic response to traumatic head injury. Hypotension can occur as a compensatory mechanism in traumatic brain injury to maintain cerebral perfusion. The body may reduce blood pressure to decrease the risk of further brain injury or bleeding. It is important for the AGACNP to recognize that in traumatic brain injury, hypotension may not necessarily require immediate intervention with vasopressors, as it may be a protective response. Monitoring and managing the patient's condition closely, including neurologic status and trends in blood pressure, is crucial in this situation.
Laryngeal stridor as a congenital abnormality is caused by
- A. Choanal atresia
- B. Laryngomalacia
- C. Diaphragmatic hernia
- D. Hirschsprung’s disease
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Laryngeal stridor is caused by laryngomalacia, where the soft tissue above the vocal cords collapses inward.
There are no other abnormal findings. This suggests that Mr. Thornton
- A. Is having anterior wall ischemia
- B. Is having an anterior wall infarction
- C. Has a history of anterior wall NSTEMI
- D. Has a history of anterior wall STEMI
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In the given scenario where there are no other abnormal findings, it suggests that Mr. Thornton is experiencing anterior wall ischemia. Ischemia occurs due to inadequate blood supply to the heart muscles, often caused by a partial blockage in the coronary arteries. The absence of abnormal findings, such as ST-segment elevation or specific changes on the electrocardiogram (ECG), indicates that the issue is more likely ischemia rather than infarction. Infarction, whether NSTEMI or STEMI, would typically be associated with specific ECG changes and significant abnormalities beyond just the absence of findings. In the absence of these features, the more likely diagnosis is anterior wall ischemia.
Precipitate labor is an unusually rapid labor
- A. That is concluded in less than three hours
- B. Where the external cervical os fails to dilate despite good uterine contractions
- C. That is concluded in more than three hours
- D. Where the external cervical os fails to dilate due to poor uterine contractions.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Precipitate labor is defined as labor lasting less than three hours.