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How many feet should separate the nurse and the source when extinguishing a small, wastebasket fire with an appropriate extinguisher?
- A. 1 foot
- B. 2 feet
- C. 4 feet
- D. 6 feet
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The nurse should stand about 6 feet from the source of the fire. Getting closer might put the nurse in danger. Choice A, 1 foot, is incorrect because it is too close to the fire and can expose the nurse to unnecessary risk. Choice B, 2 feet, is also too close to the fire and may lead to potential harm. Similarly, choice C, 4 feet, is not the ideal distance as it is still within the range of potential danger. The correct answer is D, 6 feet, which is a safe distance for the nurse to extinguish the fire effectively without risking personal safety.
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The nurse is teaching a client about communicable diseases and explains that a portal of entry is:
- A. a vector.
- B. a source, like contaminated water.
- C. food.
- D. the respiratory system.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'the respiratory system.' A portal of entry is the path through which a microorganism enters the body. In the case of communicable diseases, the respiratory system can serve as a portal of entry for pathogens such as viruses or bacteria. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. A 'vector' is an organism that transmits disease, not the entry point for pathogens. Contaminated water or food can act as sources or reservoirs of disease-causing microorganisms, not portals of entry.
All of the following tasks could be delegated to a nursing assistant or unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) except:
- A. monitoring intravenous infusion
- B. assisting a client to the bathroom
- C. offering fluid intake every 1-2 hours
- D. monitoring/recording the amount of fluid taken
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Monitoring an intravenous infusion involves assessing for complications, adjusting the flow rate, and monitoring the client's response, which requires the knowledge and skills of a licensed nurse (RN or LPN). Tasks that can be delegated to nursing assistants or unlicensed assistive personnel include assisting a client to the bathroom, offering fluids, and recording fluid intake. These activities are within the scope of practice for UAPs as they do not involve the specialized knowledge and training needed for intravenous infusion monitoring.
The nurse notes that a healthcare provider has documented the following prescription in a client's record: Furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg stat once. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Administering the medication
- B. Drawing up the medication in a syringe
- C. Planning to have the nurse on the next shift administer the medication
- D. Contacting the healthcare provider
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to contact the healthcare provider. The prescription provided lacks crucial information such as the route of administration. Before administering any medication, the nurse must clarify any missing details with the provider, especially for a stat prescription that requires immediate administration. Drawing up or administering the medication without verifying the route of administration is unsafe and can lead to errors. Planning for the next shift nurse to administer the medication is not appropriate in this scenario as the stat order necessitates immediate action. Therefore, the best course of action is to contact the healthcare provider to obtain clarification on the prescription.
Which of the following is an appropriate nursing goal for a client at risk for nutritional problems?
- A. provide oxygen
- B. promote healthy nutritional practices
- C. treat complications of malnutrition
- D. increase weight
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to promote healthy nutritional practices. This goal focuses on preventive measures to address the client's nutritional risk. Providing oxygen (Choice A) is not directly related to addressing nutritional problems. Treating complications of malnutrition (Choice C) involves addressing the consequences rather than preventing or managing the nutritional problems. Increasing weight (Choice D) would only be appropriate if the client is underweight; it does not address the broader aspect of promoting overall healthy nutritional practices.
Which of the following statements is true about syphilis?
- A. The cause and mode of transmission are well understood.
- B. There is no known cure for the disease.
- C. When the primary lesion heals, the disease is cured.
- D. Syphilis can be cured with a course of antibiotic therapy.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct statement about syphilis is that it can be cured with a course of antibiotic therapy. Syphilis is a treponemal disease that can be effectively treated with antibiotics, particularly long-acting penicillin G. The primary lesion of syphilis, known as a chancre, typically appears about three weeks after exposure and can involute even without specific treatment. If left untreated, secondary manifestations may occur, followed by latent periods. Specific treatment with antibiotics is crucial to prevent progression and transmission of the disease. Therefore, option D is correct. Option A is incorrect because the cause and mode of transmission of syphilis are well understood. Option B is incorrect as there is a known cure for syphilis. Option C is incorrect because the healing of the primary lesion does not indicate a cure for the disease.