Nokea
How should the nurse position the patient who is in a somnolent status and still under the effect of anesthesia?
- A. Supine position with head bed slightly elevate.
- B. Prone position with a pillow under the abdomen.
- C. Semi-Fowler's position with the head turned to the right.
- D. Left lateral position with a pillow supporting the head.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When a patient is in a somnolent status and still under the effect of anesthesia, the most appropriate position to place the patient is in a supine position with the head of the bed slightly elevated. This position helps prevent any obstruction of the airway and promotes optimal ventilation. Elevating the head of the bed ensures that the patient's airway remains clear and allows for proper breathing. Additionally, this position helps prevent aspiration and promotes proper circulation. Overall, the supine position with the head bed slightly elevated is the safest and most effective position for a patient in this condition.
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Nurse Angie added that oral contraceptives also contains progesterone. Which of the following is the action of progesterone in contraception? It inhibits _______.
- A. Testosterone production
- B. GnRH thereby inhibiting FSH and LH productions.
- C. Luteinising Hormone (LH) thereby inhibiting ovulation.
- D. Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) thereby inhibiting maturation of ovum.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Progesterone in oral contraceptives works primarily by inhibiting ovulation. It suppresses the secretion of luteinizing hormone (LH) from the pituitary gland, which is essential for triggering the release of an egg (ovulation) from the ovary. By blocking ovulation, progesterone helps prevent pregnancy by making it less likely for a mature egg to be available for fertilization. This mechanism of action is a key factor in the effectiveness of progesterone-containing contraceptives in preventing pregnancy.
A patient presents with recurrent episodes of vertigo, nausea, and nystagmus, often triggered by head movements. Dix-Hallpike maneuver elicits positional vertigo and rotary nystagmus. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
- A. Ménière's disease
- B. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV)
- C. Vestibular neuritis
- D. Labyrinthitis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The patient's presentation with recurrent episodes of vertigo, nausea, and nystagmus triggered by head movements, along with a positive Dix-Hallpike maneuver eliciting positional vertigo and rotary nystagmus, is classic for Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo (BPPV). BPPV is the most common cause of vertigo due to a mechanical problem in the inner ear. In BPPV, brief episodes of vertigo are typically triggered by specific head movements, such as rolling over in bed or looking up. The characteristic rotary nystagmus observed in BPPV is consistent with the brief, intense episodes of vertigo that patients experience. The Dix-Hallpike maneuver, commonly used to diagnose BPPV, involves moving the patient from sitting to a supine head-hanging position and can induce vertigo and nystagmus in affected
Which of the following laboratory findings is characteristic of nephrotic syndrome?
- A. Hematuria
- B. Hypoalbuminemia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hypocalcemia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Nephrotic syndrome is a kidney disorder characterized by increased glomerular permeability, leading to protein loss in the urine. One of the hallmarks of nephrotic syndrome is hypoalbuminemia, which refers to low levels of albumin in the blood due to its excessive loss in the urine. This loss of albumin results in decreased oncotic pressure, leading to edema and ascites. Hematuria (choice A) is not typically found in nephrotic syndrome but may be present in other kidney conditions. Hyperkalemia (choice C) is not specific to nephrotic syndrome and may be more common in conditions affecting potassium regulation. Hypocalcemia (choice D) is also not a characteristic feature of nephrotic syndrome.
A patient presents with a unilateral, painless enlargement of the thyroid gland. Fine-needle aspiration cytology reveals numerous microfollicles and psammoma bodies. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
- A. Thyroglossal duct cyst
- B. Hashimoto's thyroiditis
- C. Thyroid adenoma
- D. Papillary thyroid carcinoma
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Papillary thyroid carcinoma is the most common type of thyroid cancer and is known for presenting as a painless unilateral enlargement of the thyroid gland. Fine-needle aspiration cytology typically reveals classic features such as numerous microfollicles and psammoma bodies. Thyroglossal duct cyst, Hashimoto's thyroiditis, and thyroid adenoma would not typically present with these cytological features or with painless thyroid enlargement as seen in papillary thyroid carcinoma.
Which of the following is a common cause of secondary osteoporosis?
- A. Rheumatoid arthritis
- B. Paget's disease of bone
- C. Osteogenesis imperfecta
- D. Marfan syndrome
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rheumatoid arthritis is a common cause of secondary osteoporosis. Chronic inflammation in rheumatoid arthritis can lead to bone loss due to increased osteoclast activity and decreased bone formation. Patients with rheumatoid arthritis are at an increased risk for developing osteoporosis, resulting in decreased bone density and increased fracture risk. Monitoring and managing bone health is an important aspect of care for individuals with rheumatoid arthritis to help prevent osteoporosis-related complications.