Nokea
Hyperparathyroidism is caused by increased levels of thyroxine in blood plasma. A client with this endocrine dysfunction would experience:
- A. Heat intolerance and systolic
- B. Diastolic hypertension and widened hypertension pulse pressure
- C. Weight gain and heat intolerance
- D. Anorexia and hyper-excitability
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because hyperparathyroidism is not caused by increased levels of thyroxine but by overactivity of the parathyroid glands. This would lead to symptoms of heat intolerance due to increased metabolism and systolic hypertension due to the effects of excess parathyroid hormone on calcium levels.
Choice B is incorrect because diastolic hypertension and widened pulse pressure are not typical symptoms of hyperparathyroidism. Choice C is incorrect because weight gain is not a common symptom of hyperparathyroidism. Choice D is incorrect because anorexia and hyper-excitability are not typical symptoms of hyperparathyroidism.
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A client is receiving chemotherapy for cancer. The nurse reviews the client’s laboratory report and notes that he has thrombocytopenia. To which nursing diagnosis should the nurse give the highest priority?
- A. Activity intolerance
- B. Impaired tissue integrity
- C. Impaired oral mucous membranes
- D. Ineffective tissue perfusion: Cerebral, cardiopulmonary, GI
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Ineffective tissue perfusion: Cerebral, cardiopulmonary, GI. Thrombocytopenia is a low platelet count, which can lead to impaired blood clotting and potential bleeding. Ineffective tissue perfusion is the most critical concern as it can lead to life-threatening complications like hemorrhage. Activity intolerance, impaired tissue integrity, and impaired oral mucous membranes are important but do not pose an immediate threat to the client's life compared to the risk of hemorrhage from thrombocytopenia.
A client is hospitalized with oat cell carcinoma of the lung. To manage severe pain, the physician prescribes a continuous I.V. infusion of morphine. Which formula should the nurse use to check that the morphine dose is appropriate for the client?
- A. 1 mg/kg of body weight
- B. 5 mg/70kg of body weight
- C. 5 mg/kg of body weight
- D. 10mg/70kg of body weight
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct formula to calculate the appropriate morphine dose for the client is 5 mg/kg of body weight. This is the most suitable formula because morphine dosing is typically based on weight to ensure appropriate pain management and to prevent adverse effects. By using this formula, the nurse can calculate the exact dose based on the client's weight, providing personalized care.
Choice A (1 mg/kg of body weight) is too low of a dose and may not effectively manage severe pain. Choice B (5 mg/70kg of body weight) is not ideal as it does not account for variations in weight among individuals. Choice D (10mg/70kg of body weight) would result in an overdose for most patients, potentially causing serious harm.
Therefore, by using the formula of 5 mg/kg of body weight, the nurse can ensure that the morphine dose is appropriate and safe for the client.
After a transsphenoidal adenohypophysectomy, a client is likely to undergo hormone replacement therapy. A transsphenoidal adenohypophysectomy is performed to treat which type of cancer?
- A. Esophageal carcinoma
- B. Laryngeal carcinoma
- C. Pituitary carcinoma
- D. Colorectal carcinoma
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: After a transsphenoidal adenohypophysectomy, hormone replacement therapy is needed due to the removal of the pituitary gland. This surgery is typically done to treat pituitary carcinoma, making choice C the correct answer. Pituitary carcinoma is a type of cancer that affects the pituitary gland. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not involve the pituitary gland. Esophageal carcinoma affects the esophagus, laryngeal carcinoma affects the larynx, and colorectal carcinoma affects the colon and rectum. Therefore, the correct choice, C, is the only one related to the pituitary gland and the procedure described.
The examiner shines a light in the patient’s eyes and notes that the pupils are round and constrict from 4 to 2 mm bilaterally. Next, the examiner asks the patient to focus on a far object, then on the examiner’s finger as it is brought from 3 feet distance to 5 inches distance. The pupils constrict bilaterally and the eyes turn inward. Which of the ff. would be the correct documentation of these findings?
- A. Pupils 2 mm
- B. PERRLA
- C. Pupils constricted
- D. Pupils normal
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: PERRLA, which stands for Pupils Equal, Round, Reactive to Light, and Accommodation. This documentation reflects a comprehensive assessment of the pupils' response to light and accommodation. The pupils constricting from 4 to 2 mm bilaterally in response to light indicates they are reactive. Additionally, the eyes turning inward when focusing on a near object shows accommodation.
Choice A is not the best option because it only mentions the pupil size without capturing other important aspects of the assessment. Choice C is too vague, as it does not specify the exact response of the pupils. Choice D is incorrect because it does not provide a detailed description of the pupils' response to both light and accommodation. Therefore, option B is the most appropriate choice as it encompasses all the necessary components of the assessment.
A client with cancer that has metastazised to the liver is started on chemotherapy- His physician has specified divided doses of the antimetabolite. The client asks why he could take the drug in divided doses. The appropriate response is:
- A. " There really is no reason your doctor just wrote the orders that way."
- B. "This schedule will reduce the side effect of the drug."
- C. "Divided doses produce greater cytotoxic effects on the diseased cells."
- D. "Because these drugs prevent cell division, they are more effective in divided doses,"
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: "Divided doses produce greater cytotoxic effects on the diseased cells." Dividing the doses of the antimetabolite allows for more consistent levels of the drug in the bloodstream, ensuring sustained exposure to the cancer cells. This continuous exposure enhances the drug's cytotoxic effects, increasing its efficacy in targeting and destroying the diseased cells. Options A and B provide vague or incorrect information, while option D is misleading as antimetabolites do not prevent cell division, but rather disrupt DNA synthesis.