Reproductive System Anatomy Quizlet

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If a radioimmunoassay is properly conducted and the amount of radioactive hormone bound to antibody is low, this would indicate which of the following?

  • A. Plasma levels of endogenous hormone are high
  • B. Plasma levels of endogenous hormone are low
  • C. More antibody is needed
  • D. Less radioactive hormone is needed
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Plasma levels of endogenous hormone are high. When the amount of radioactive hormone bound to the antibody is low in a radioimmunoassay, it indicates that there is a high concentration of non-radioactive, endogenous hormone present in the sample competing for binding sites on the antibody. This competition results in fewer radioactive hormones binding to the antibody. Therefore, the low radioactive hormone binding suggests an abundance of non-radioactive hormone in the sample.

Choice B is incorrect because low levels of radioactive hormone binding do not indicate low plasma levels of endogenous hormone. Choice C is incorrect as more antibody wouldn't affect the binding of radioactive hormone if endogenous hormone levels are high. Choice D is incorrect because the amount of radioactive hormone needed is not related to the binding observed in the assay.

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The following secondary sexual characteristics are influenced by the testosterone:

  • A. skeleton;
  • B. voice;
  • C. the secretory modification of the spermatogenic epithelium;
  • D. the distribution of excess fat;
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale:
1. Testosterone is a male sex hormone responsible for developing secondary sexual characteristics.
2. Voice deepening is a well-known secondary sexual characteristic influenced by testosterone.
3. Testosterone affects the larynx, causing vocal cords to lengthen and thicken, leading to a deeper voice.
4. Skeleton development is mainly influenced by growth hormones, not testosterone.
5. Secretory modifications in spermatogenic epithelium are regulated by other hormones like FSH and LH, not testosterone.
6. The distribution of excess fat is influenced by various factors like genetics and metabolism, not specifically testosterone.

Summary:
Voice deepening (choice B) is the correct answer as it is a well-known secondary sexual characteristic influenced by testosterone. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they are not directly influenced by testosterone in the context of secondary sexual characteristics.

When do the corona radiata cells appear?

  • A. at birth
  • B. 12 days
  • C. 28 days
  • D. 1 day
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The corona radiata cells appear at birth because they are a crucial part of the ovum and are present as soon as the ovum is released from the ovary. The other choices are incorrect because corona radiata cells are not formed at 12, 28, or 1 day after birth. They are specifically associated with the ovum and its release during ovulation, making option A the most accurate.

Which gland provides fructose, a sugar in semen that energizes sperm?

  • A. Seminal vesicles
  • B. Bulbourethral gland
  • C. Prostate
  • D. Epididymis
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Seminal vesicles. These glands produce fructose, a sugar in semen that provides energy for sperm. Seminal vesicles are located near the base of the bladder and are responsible for producing a significant portion of the fluid in semen. The other choices are incorrect because the bulbourethral gland produces a clear lubricating fluid, the prostate produces a milky fluid that helps with sperm motility and viability, and the epididymis is a coiled tube where sperm mature and are stored, but it does not produce fructose.

A patient asks when she should make an appointment for her first Pap (Papanicolaou) test to screen for cervical cancer. What is the nurse’s most appropriate response?

  • A. There is no need for Pap tests until after you have become pregnant.
  • B. All women should have the first Pap test after reaching menarche.
  • C. All women should have the first Pap test after they are 19 years of age.
  • D. All women should have the first Pap test when they become sexually active or at age 21.
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. The first Pap test should be done when a woman becomes sexually active or at age 21, whichever comes first. This is because cervical cancer is associated with the human papillomavirus (HPV), which is a sexually transmitted infection. Screening at this stage helps detect any abnormalities early on, increasing the chances of successful treatment.

A: Incorrect. Waiting until after pregnancy is not recommended as early detection is crucial in preventing cervical cancer.
B: Incorrect. The age of menarche is not a reliable indicator for when to start screening for cervical cancer.
C: Incorrect. Waiting until 19 may miss early signs of cervical abnormalities that could lead to cancer.

In summary, choice D is the most appropriate response as it aligns with current screening guidelines and focuses on early detection for optimal outcomes.

Which of the following findings would confirm that a female client has mastitis? Choose all that apply.

  • A. A crack in the nipple or the areola
  • B. Multiple lumps within the breast tissue
  • C. Flat and soft breasts
  • D. Support the arm and the shoulder with pillows.
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: A crack in the nipple or areola is a common sign of mastitis.

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