Nokea
The nurse manager is assisting a nurse with improving organizational skills and time management. Which nursing activity is the priority in pre-planning a schedule for selected nursing activities in the daily assignment?
- A. Tracheostomy tube suctioning.
- B. Medication administration.
- C. Colostomy care instruction.
- D. Client personal hygiene.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Medication administration. This is the priority because medication administration is time-sensitive and crucial for patient safety. It requires precise timing and cannot be delayed. Tracheostomy tube suctioning (A), colostomy care instruction (C), and client personal hygiene (D) are important nursing activities but can be adjusted within the schedule based on patient needs and acuity levels. Prioritizing medication administration ensures that patients receive their medications on time, preventing adverse events and promoting optimal health outcomes.
You may also like to solve these questions
The most common reasons for initiating dialysis in acute kidney injury include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Acidosis
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Volume overload
- D. Hyperkalemia
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Volume overload. In acute kidney injury, impaired kidney function leads to fluid retention, causing volume overload. Dialysis helps remove excess fluid to restore fluid balance. Acidosis and hyperkalemia are potential complications of acute kidney injury but not the primary reasons for initiating dialysis. Hypokalemia is unlikely in acute kidney injury due to impaired excretion of potassium by the kidneys. Therefore, the most common reason for initiating dialysis in acute kidney injury is to manage volume overload.
Which of the following are components of the Institute for Healthcare Improvement’s (IHI’s) ventilator bundle? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Interrupt sedation each day to assess readiness to extub aa bit re b.. c om/test
- B. Maintain head of bed at least 30 degrees elevation.
- C. Provide deep vein thrombosis prophylaxis.
- D. Provide prophylaxis for peptic ulcer disease.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because interrupting sedation daily to assess readiness to extubate is a key component of IHI's ventilator bundle to prevent ventilator-associated pneumonia. This practice helps prevent over-sedation, reduce the duration of mechanical ventilation, and decrease the risk of complications. The other choices, B, C, and D, are incorrect as they are not specific components of the IHI's ventilator bundle. Maintaining head of bed elevation, providing deep vein thrombosis prophylaxis, and prophylaxis for peptic ulcer disease are important aspects of critical care but are not directly related to the ventilator bundle protocol outlined by IHI.
A nurse has been working as a staff nurse in the surgical inabteirbn.scoivme/t ecsat re unit for 2 years and is interested in certification. Which credential would be most applicable for her to seek?
- A. ACNPC
- B. CCNS
- C. CCRN
- D. PCCN
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: CCRN. The nurse works in a surgical unit, making CCRN (Critical Care Registered Nurse) the most applicable credential as it focuses on critical care nursing, which is relevant to the nurse's current practice. ACNPC (Acute Care Nurse Practitioner Certification) and PCCN (Progressive Care Certified Nurse) are not suitable as they are more focused on advanced practice or progressive care respectively, not directly related to surgical units. CCNS (Clinical Nurse Specialist Certification) is not the best choice as it is more geared towards advanced practice roles in specific clinical specialties, not general staff nursing.
Positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) is a mode of ventaiblairbto.croym /atessst istance that produces which of the following conditions
- A. Each time the patient initiates a breath, the ventilator d elivers a full preset tidal volume.
- B. For each spontaneous breath taken by the patient, the tidal volume is determined by the patient’s ability to generate negative pressure.
- C. The patient must have a respiratory drive, or no breaths will be delivered.
- D. There is pressure remaining in the lungs at the end of eaxbiprbi.rcaotmio/tens tt hat is measured in cm H O.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) is a mode of ventilation where pressure is maintained in the lungs at the end of expiration. This helps prevent alveolar collapse and improves oxygenation. Option A is incorrect because PEEP does not deliver a full preset tidal volume with each breath initiation. Option B is incorrect because tidal volume in PEEP is not solely determined by the patient's ability to generate negative pressure. Option C is incorrect because in PEEP, breaths are delivered irrespective of the patient's respiratory drive.
A patient presents to the emergency department in acute re spiratory failure secondary to community-acquired pneumonia. The patient has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. The nurse anticipates which treatment to facilitate ventilation?
- A. Emergency tracheostomy and mechanical ventilation
- B. Mechanical ventilation via an endotracheal tube
- C. Noninvasive positive-pressure ventilation (NPPV)
- D. Oxygen at 100% via bag-valve-mask device
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Mechanical ventilation via an endotracheal tube. In acute respiratory failure, especially in the setting of pneumonia and COPD, mechanical ventilation is often necessary to support breathing. Endotracheal intubation allows for precise control of airway patency, oxygenation, and ventilation. Emergency tracheostomy (choice A) is typically reserved for long-term ventilatory support. Noninvasive positive-pressure ventilation (choice C) may not provide sufficient support in severe cases. Oxygen via bag-valve-mask (choice D) may not be adequate for ventilatory support in acute respiratory failure.