Nokea
In a client with asthma who develops respiratory acidosis, what should the nurse expect the client's serum potassium level to be?
- A. normal
- B. elevated
- C. low
- D. unrelated to the pH
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In respiratory acidosis, the serum potassium level is expected to be elevated. This occurs because potassium shifts from cells into the bloodstream as a compensatory mechanism to maintain acid-base balance. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. A normal potassium level is not expected in respiratory acidosis. A low potassium level is more commonly associated with alkalosis, not acidosis. The potassium level is indeed related to pH changes in respiratory acidosis, leading to the expected elevation.
You may also like to solve these questions
A healthcare professional is reviewing a patient's medical record. The record indicates the patient has limited shoulder flexion on the left. Which plane of movement is limited?
- A. Horizontal
- B. Sagittal
- C. Frontal
- D. Vertical
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Sagittal.' The sagittal plane divides the body into left and right halves, and movements in this plane involve flexion and extension. In this case, limited shoulder flexion on the left indicates a restriction in the forward and backward movement of the arm, which occurs in the sagittal plane. Choice A, 'Horizontal,' is incorrect as it refers to movements parallel to the ground. Choice C, 'Frontal,' is incorrect as it involves side-to-side movements. Choice D, 'Vertical,' is incorrect as it typically refers to up and down movements.
A 32-year-old male with a complaint of dizziness has an order for Morphine via IV. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Check the patient's chest x-ray results.
- B. Retake vitals including blood pressure.
- C. Perform a neurological screening on the patient.
- D. Request the physician on-call to assess the patient.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take in this situation is to retake the patient's vitals, including blood pressure. Dizziness can be a sign of hypotension, which may be a contraindication for administering Morphine. Checking the chest x-ray results (Choice A) would not be the priority in this case as addressing the dizziness is more urgent. Performing a neurological screening (Choice C) may be important but not the first step when a patient presents with dizziness and an order for Morphine. Requesting the physician to assess the patient (Choice D) should come after the initial assessment and vitals retake.
A healthcare professional is screening patients for immunizations. Which of the following is not a contraindication for immunization?
- A. Seizures
- B. Fever lasting more than 3 days
- C. Malignancy within the past 3 months
- D. Illness lasting more than 6 months
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Illness lasting more than 6 months.' Chronic conditions lasting more than 6 months are not considered a contraindication for immunization. Choice A, 'Seizures,' can be a contraindication in certain situations, especially if linked to a specific vaccine component. Choice B, 'Fever lasting more than 3 days,' can be a temporary precaution but not a general contraindication. Choice C, 'Malignancy within the past 3 months,' is a contraindication due to the compromised immune system in cancer patients.
During a home health visit, a nurse consults with a male patient diagnosed with CAD and COPD who is taking Ventolin, Azmacort, Aspirin, and Theophylline and complains of upset stomach, nausea, and discomfort. What should the nurse do?
- A. Contact the patient's physician immediately
- B. Recommend the patient lie on his right side
- C. Advise the patient to schedule a doctor's visit the next day
- D. Suggest holding the drug Azmacort
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to contact the patient's physician immediately. The patient's symptoms of upset stomach, nausea, and discomfort could indicate theophylline toxicity, a potentially serious condition. It is crucial to consult the physician promptly to address this issue. Option B, recommending the patient lie on his right side, is incorrect as it does not address the potential theophylline toxicity and is not a priority. Option C, advising the patient to schedule a doctor's visit the next day, is inappropriate as the symptoms may indicate an urgent concern. Option D, suggesting holding the drug Azmacort, is incorrect as it does not address the potential theophylline toxicity and should not be done without consulting the physician first.
Metformin (Glucophage) is administered to clients with type II diabetes mellitus. Metformin is an example of:
- A. an antihyperglycemic agent.
- B. a hypoglycemic agent.
- C. an insulin analogue.
- D. a pancreatic alpha cell stimulant
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Metformin is classified as an antihyperglycemic agent because it works by reducing hepatic glucose output and decreasing glucose absorption from the gut, thereby preventing hyperglycemia. Choice B, a hypoglycemic agent, is incorrect as hypoglycemic agents stimulate insulin production, which is not the mechanism of action of metformin. Choice C, an insulin analogue, is incorrect as metformin is not a type of insulin but a distinct medication. Choice D, a pancreatic alpha cell stimulant, is incorrect as metformin does not stimulate any pancreatic cells, but rather acts on the liver and gut to lower blood sugar levels.