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In hanging a parenteral IV fluid that is to be infused by gravity, rather than with an infusion pump, the nurse notes that the IV tubing is available in different drop factors. Which tubing is a microdrop set?
- A. 15 drops per milliliter
- B. 60 drops per milliliter
- C. 20 drops per milliliter
- D. 10 drops per milliliter
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: All microdrop sets are calculated to give 60 drops for each milliliter of IV fluid. Macrodrop sets are calculated to give 10, 15, or 20 drops for each milliliter of IV fluid.
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When a couple experiencing infertility presents for a fertility workup, which of the following procedures should the nurse prepare the couple to have first?
- A. hysterosalpingography
- B. semen analysis
- C. endometrial biopsy
- D. transvaginal ultrasound
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Because semen analysis is the least invasive of the tests listed and because in 35% of the cases the infertility is related to a male factor, semen analysis should be one of the first diagnostic tests performed. Hysterosalpingography fills the uterus and fallopian tubes with a radiopaque substance that can be seen with an X ray. It demonstrates tubal patency or any distortion of the uterine cavity. Endometrial biopsy provides information about the effects of progesterone after ovulation and the endometrial receptivity. Transvaginal ultrasound is mostly used in the treatment of infertility. For diagnosis it allows the endocrinologist to evaluate the developing follicle, assess oocyte maturity, and diagnose luteal phase defects. All the tests listed in Choices 1, 3, and 4 are more invasive, require greater expertise to evaluate and treat, and are more costly. If the semen analysis is normal, the couple can expect to progress through these tests as well.
A patient is currently having a petit mal seizure in the clinic on the floor. Which of the following criteria has the highest priority in this situation?
- A. Provide a safe environment free of obstructions in the immediate area
- B. Call a code
- C. Contact the patient's physician
- D. Prevent excessive movement of the extremities
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Patient safety should be the top concern about this patient.
A client is given an opiate drug for pain relief following general anesthesia. The client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression. The physician is likely to order the administration of:
- A. naloxone (Narcan).
- B. labetalol (Normodyne).
- C. neostigmine (Prostigmin).
- D. thiothixene (Navane).
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Naloxone is an opiate antagonist. It attaches to opiate receptors and blocks or reverses the action of narcotic analgesics. Choice 2 is incorrect because Labetalol is a beta blocker. Choice 3 is incorrect because Neostigmine is an anticholinesterase agent. Choice 4 is incorrect because Thiothixene is an antipsychotic agent.
A client is given an opiate drug for pain relief following general anesthesia. The client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression. The physician is likely to order the administration of:
- A. naloxone (Narcan)
- B. labetalol (Normodyne)
- C. neostigmine (Prostigmin)
- D. thiothixene (Navane)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Naloxone reverses opioid-induced respiratory depression and somnolence by antagonizing opioid receptors. The other drugs do not address opioid overdose.
When a client with a major burn experiences body image disturbance, which of the following is an appropriate nursing intervention classification?
- A. Grief work facilitation
- B. Vital signs monitoring
- C. Medication administration: skin
- D. Anxiety reduction
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Grief work facilitation helps address body image disturbance in burn clients by supporting grief resolution related to altered appearance.