Nokea
In healthcare facility, a planned program of loss prevention and liability control refers to
- A. quality assurance
- B. risk management
- C. critical pathways
- D. peer review
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Risk management in a healthcare facility involves identifying, assessing, and minimizing risks to prevent potential harm to patients and reduce liability issues. A planned program of loss prevention and liability control falls under the umbrella of risk management. This program includes strategies to mitigate risks such as patient safety protocols, infection control measures, staff training, and proper documentation practices to minimize legal liabilities. By implementing risk management practices, healthcare facilities aim to provide safe and high-quality care to their patients while also protecting themselves against potential legal challenges.
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A nurse is preparing to perform a urinary catheterization for a patient. What action should the nurse take to ensure proper insertion technique?
- A. Inserting the catheter without using sterile gloves
- B. Using aseptic technique and sterile equipment during catheter insertion
- C. Performing catheterization without using lubricating jelly
- D. Advancing the catheter rapidly to minimize patient discomfort
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to ensure proper insertion technique during a urinary catheterization is to use aseptic technique and sterile equipment. This is crucial in preventing infections and ensuring patient safety. Aseptic technique involves maintaining cleanliness and preventing the introduction of harmful microorganisms during invasive procedures like catheterization. Using sterile equipment helps minimize the risk of introducing bacteria into the urinary tract, which could lead to a urinary tract infection (UTI). Therefore, it is essential that the nurse follows strict infection control protocols and uses sterile equipment to maintain patient safety and well-being during the catheterization procedure.
A patient presents with sudden-onset, severe eye pain, headache, nausea, and vomiting. On examination, the affected eye appears red, with a steamy cornea and mid-dilated, non-reactive pupil. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
- A. Acute angle-closure glaucoma
- B. Central retinal artery occlusion
- C. Optic neuritis
- D. Corneal ulcer
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The described presentation is classic for acute angle-closure glaucoma. This condition is characterized by sudden-onset severe eye pain, headache, nausea, and vomiting. The red eye, steamy cornea (corneal edema), and mid-dilated non-reactive pupil are consistent with acute angle-closure glaucoma. The sudden increase in intraocular pressure leads to impaired aqueous humor outflow, causing these symptoms. Immediate intervention is required to prevent permanent vision loss in such cases. Central retinal artery occlusion would present with sudden painless vision loss. Optic neuritis typically presents with vision loss and pain with eye movements. Corneal ulcer presents with eye discomfort, foreign body sensation, and may have a history of corneal trauma or contact lens wear.
A patient presents with sudden-onset, painless vision loss in the right eye. Fundoscopic examination reveals a cherry-red spot at the macula and attenuated retinal vessels. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
- A. Central retinal artery occlusion
- B. Central retinal vein occlusion
- C. Retinal detachment
- D. Acute angle-closure glaucoma
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The presentation described with sudden-onset, painless vision loss, a cherry-red spot at the macula, and attenuated retinal vessels is classic for central retinal artery occlusion (CRAO). CRAO occurs when the central retinal artery, which supplies blood to the inner retinal layers, becomes occluded. The cherry-red spot is due to the exposure of the underlying choroid, which still appears red as it is not affected by the blockage. Attenuated retinal vessels and a pale retina may also be seen due to ischemia. In contrast, central retinal vein occlusion (choice B) presents with sudden painless vision loss, retinal hemorrhages, dilated retinal veins, and cotton-wool spots. Retinal detachment (choice C) typically presents with flashes, floaters, and a curtain-like shadow across the vision. Acute angle-closure glaucoma (
Which of the following structures is responsible for the production of saliva, which aids in lubricating the oral cavity and initiating the digestion of carbohydrates?
- A. Liver
- B. Gallbladder
- C. Salivary glands
- D. Pancreas
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The salivary glands are responsible for the production of saliva, which aids in lubricating the oral cavity and initiating the digestion of carbohydrates. Saliva contains enzymes that begin the digestive process by breaking down carbohydrates into simpler sugars. The liver is involved in the production of bile, which aids in the digestion and absorption of fats. The gallbladder stores bile produced by the liver, which is released into the small intestine. The pancreas produces digestive enzymes that are released into the small intestine to aid in the digestion of proteins, fats, and carbohydrates.
What condition is NOT likely to developing Sherry?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Tooth decay
- C. Gastric ulcer
- D. Rectal bleeding
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Sherry is a type of fortified wine produced in Spain. It is not associated with the development of hyperkalemia, which is a condition characterized by high levels of potassium in the blood. Hyperkalemia is commonly caused by kidney dysfunction, certain medications, or excessive intake of potassium-rich foods. Drinking Sherry is not likely to cause hyperkalemia. On the other hand, Sherry consumption can potentially contribute to tooth decay, gastric ulcers, and rectal bleeding due to its acidity and alcohol content.