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In menopausal women, what is the primary goal of estrogen therapy?
- A. To relieve menopausal symptoms
- B. To prevent osteoporosis
- C. To increase calcium absorption
- D. To maintain bone strength
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The primary goal of estrogen therapy in menopausal women is to prevent osteoporosis by maintaining bone density. Estrogen helps in preserving bone mass and reducing the risk of fractures. While estrogen therapy may alleviate some menopausal symptoms, such as hot flashes, its primary focus is on bone health rather than symptom management. Increasing calcium absorption and maintaining bone strength are outcomes of preventing osteoporosis rather than the primary goal of estrogen therapy.
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A patient underwent an open cholecystectomy 4 days ago, and her incision is now in the proliferative phase of healing. The nurse knows that the next step in the process of wound healing is:
- A. Inflammation
- B. Maturation
- C. Remodeling
- D. Coagulation
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In the context of wound healing, after the proliferative phase comes the remodeling phase. During the remodeling phase, the wound gains strength as collagen fibers reorganize, and the scar matures. Inflammation is the initial phase of healing, where the body responds to injury with redness, swelling, and warmth. Maturation is the final stage where the scar tissue continues to undergo changes but is not the immediate next step after the proliferative phase. Coagulation is the process of blood clot formation and is not a phase in wound healing.
A male patient is receiving testosterone therapy for hypogonadism. What adverse effect should the nurse monitor for during this therapy?
- A. Increased risk of cardiovascular events
- B. Increased risk of liver dysfunction
- C. Increased risk of prostate cancer
- D. Increased risk of bone fractures
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of cardiovascular events. Testosterone therapy for hypogonadism is associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular events, such as myocardial infarction and stroke. Monitoring for signs and symptoms of cardiovascular issues is crucial during testosterone therapy. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because testosterone therapy is not typically associated with an increased risk of liver dysfunction, prostate cancer, or bone fractures.
A patient is receiving chloroquine (Aralen) for extraintestinal amebiasis. Which of the following medications should be administered with chloroquine?
- A. Iodoquinol (Yodoxin)
- B. Metronidazole (Flagyl)
- C. Metyrosine (Demser)
- D. Carbamazepine (Tegretol)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Metronidazole (Flagyl). When treating extraintestinal amebiasis, chloroquine is often used in combination with metronidazole to ensure the eradication of the parasite. Metronidazole helps to target the infection more effectively. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Iodoquinol (Yodoxin) is another antiprotozoal agent but is not typically used in combination with chloroquine for amebiasis. Metyrosine (Demser) is used in the management of pheochromocytoma, and carbamazepine (Tegretol) is an anticonvulsant and mood-stabilizing drug, neither of which are indicated for extraintestinal amebiasis.
What is the primary action of bisphosphonates when prescribed to a patient with osteoporosis?
- A. It inhibits bone resorption, which helps maintain bone density.
- B. It stimulates new bone formation by increasing osteoblast activity.
- C. It increases calcium absorption in the intestines, which helps build stronger bones.
- D. It decreases calcium excretion by the kidneys, helping to maintain bone density.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: "It inhibits bone resorption, which helps maintain bone density." Bisphosphonates work by inhibiting bone resorption carried out by osteoclasts, thereby preventing the breakdown of bones and helping to maintain or increase bone density in patients with osteoporosis. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because bisphosphonates do not directly stimulate new bone formation, increase calcium absorption in the intestines, or decrease calcium excretion by the kidneys.
A male patient with erectile dysfunction is prescribed sildenafil (Viagra). What specific instruction should the nurse provide to ensure the safe use of this medication?
- A. Take the medication with food to prevent nausea.
- B. Avoid taking nitrates while on this medication.
- C. Take the medication at bedtime to ensure absorption during sleep.
- D. Take the medication with milk to enhance absorption.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should provide is to avoid taking nitrates while on sildenafil (Viagra). Combining sildenafil with nitrates can result in severe hypotension due to additive vasodilatory effects. Choice A is incorrect because sildenafil can be taken with or without food. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific requirement to take sildenafil at bedtime. Choice D is incorrect as taking sildenafil with milk has not been shown to enhance its absorption.