Nokea
In microcytic hypochromic anaemia
- A. Red cells are larger with normal staining
- B. Red blood cell count is increased
- C. Haemtocrit and mean corpuscular haemoglobin are normal
- D. Red cells are smaller with a pale large central pallor
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In microcytic hypochromic anemia, red cells are smaller with decreased hemoglobin content, leading to pale appearance. Choice D is correct as it describes the typical characteristics of microcytic hypochromic anemia. Choice A is incorrect as red cells are smaller, not larger. Choice B is incorrect as red blood cell count is usually decreased. Choice C is incorrect as both hematocrit and mean corpuscular hemoglobin are decreased in microcytic hypochromic anemia.
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While taking a client history, which factor(s) that place the client at risk for a hematologic health problem will the nurse document? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Family history of military excellence
- B. Diet low in iron and protein
- C. Excessive alcohol consumption
- D. Family history of allergies
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Excessive alcohol consumption. Excessive alcohol intake can lead to hematologic health problems such as anemia and abnormal blood clotting. Alcohol interferes with the production of red blood cells and impairs the function of platelets. Therefore, documenting excessive alcohol consumption is crucial in assessing a client's risk for hematologic issues.
Explanation for why other choices are incorrect:
A: Family history of military excellence - This choice is irrelevant to hematologic health problems and does not pose a risk factor.
B: Diet low in iron and protein - While a poor diet can contribute to hematologic issues, this specific choice does not directly indicate a risk factor for hematologic problems.
D: Family history of allergies - Allergies are not directly related to hematologic health problems, so this choice is not relevant in this context.
A 30 year old patient had presented with fever and posterior cervical lymphadenopathy over the past two years. Which is the most probably causative organism?
- A. Trypanosoma cruzi
- B. Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense
- C. Trypanosoma brucei gambiense
- D. Leishmania donovani
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Trypanosoma brucei gambiense. This is the most probable causative organism because the patient's presentation of fever and posterior cervical lymphadenopathy over a prolonged period aligns with the chronic infection caused by Trypanosoma brucei gambiense, which leads to African Trypanosomiasis (sleeping sickness). Trypanosoma cruzi (choice A) causes Chagas disease, which typically presents with acute symptoms such as fever and swelling at the site of infection. Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense (choice B) causes acute African Trypanosomiasis with a more rapid progression compared to gambiense. Leishmania donovani (choice D) causes visceral leishmaniasis, which presents with prolonged fever, splenomegaly, and pancytopenia, but not typically with cervical lymphadenopathy.
A nurse is caring for a client who is taking clopidogrel to prevent stent restenosis. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse reactions?
- A. Hyperuricemia
- B. Hyponatremia
- C. Lymphocytopenia
- D. Thrombocytopenia
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Thrombocytopenia. Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that works by inhibiting platelet aggregation. Therefore, monitoring for thrombocytopenia, a decrease in platelet count, is crucial to assess the drug's effectiveness and potential side effects. Hyperuricemia (A) is not directly associated with clopidogrel use. Hyponatremia (B) is not a common adverse reaction of clopidogrel. Lymphocytopenia (C) is not typically linked to clopidogrel and is more commonly seen with other medications or conditions.
A 30 year old patient had presented with fever and posterior cervical lymphadenopathy over the past two years. Which is the most probably causative organism?
- A. Trypanosoma cruzi
- B. Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense
- C. Trypanosoma brucei gambiense
- D. Leishmania donovani
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Trypanosoma brucei gambiense. This is the most likely causative organism because the patient's presentation of fever and posterior cervical lymphadenopathy is consistent with African trypanosomiasis, also known as sleeping sickness, which is caused by T. brucei gambiense. This parasite is transmitted by the tsetse fly in sub-Saharan Africa. The other choices (A, B, D) are not the correct causative organism for African trypanosomiasis and do not match the clinical presentation described in the question. Trypanosoma cruzi causes Chagas disease, Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense causes a more acute form of African trypanosomiasis, and Leishmania donovani causes visceral leishmaniasis, which typically presents with splenomegaly and hepatomegaly rather than posterior cervical lymphadenopathy.
A 4-year-old child with acute lymphoblastic leukemia is receiving high-dose methotrexate during interim maintenance. He receives ondansetron and арретitant during his stay, which control his nausea and vomiting well. These medications work by inhibiting signaling in which part of the brain?
- A. Vestibular system
- B. Cerebral cortex
- C. Hypothalamus
- D. Vomiting center
Correct Answer: E
Rationale: I'm sorry, but it seems there was a mistake in providing the correct answer. The answer should be D: Vomiting center. Ondansetron and aprepitant work by inhibiting signaling in the vomiting center of the brain, which helps control nausea and vomiting. The vomiting center is located in the medulla oblongata, part of the brainstem responsible for coordinating the vomiting reflex. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the vestibular system is involved in balance and spatial orientation, the cerebral cortex is responsible for higher brain functions, and the hypothalamus plays a role in regulating various bodily functions but not directly in controlling vomiting.