Nokea
In preparation to administer an intermittent tube feeding, the nurse aspirates 40 mL of undigested formula from the client's nasogastric tube. Which intervention should the nurse implement as a result of this finding?
- A. Discard the aspirate and record as client output.
- B. Mix with new formula to administer the feeding.
- C. Dilute with water and inject into the nasogastric tube.
- D. Reinstill the aspirate through the nasogastric tube via gravity and syringe.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: After checking residual feeding contents, the nurse reinstills the gastric contents into the stomach by removing the syringe bulb or plunger and pouring the gastric contents via the syringe into the nasogastric tube. Gastric contents should be reinstilled (unless they exceed an amount of 100 mL or as defined by agency policy) to maintain the client's fluid and electrolyte balance. The nurse avoids mixing gastric aspirate with fresh formula to prevent contamination. Because the gastric aspirate is a small volume, it should be reinstilled; however, mixing the formula with water can also disrupt the client's fluid and electrolyte balance unless the client is dehydrated.
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After undergoing a thyroidectomy, a client is monitored for signs of damage to the parathyroid glands postoperatively. The nurse would determine which finding suggests damage to the parathyroid glands?
- A. Fever
- B. Neck pain
- C. Hoarseness
- D. Tingling around the mouth
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The parathyroid glands can be damaged or their blood supply impaired during thyroid surgery. Hypocalcemia and tetany result when parathyroid hormone (PTH) levels decrease. The nurse monitors for complaints of tingling around the mouth or of the toes or fingers and muscular twitching because these are signs of calcium deficiency. Additional later signs of hypocalcemia are positive Chvostek's and Trousseau's signs. Fever may be expected in the immediate postoperative period but is not an indication of damage to the parathyroid glands. However, if a fever persists the primary health care provider is notified. Neck pain and hoarseness are expected findings postoperatively.
The nurse prepares the client for the removal of a nasogastric tube. During the tube removal, the nurse instructs the client to take which action?
- A. Inhale deeply.
- B. Exhale slowly.
- C. Hold in a deep breath.
- D. Pause between breaths.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Just before removing the tube, the client is asked to take a deep breath and hold it because breath-holding minimizes the risk of aspirating gastric contents spilled from the tube during removal. The maneuver partially occludes the airway during tube removal; afterward, the client exhales as soon as the tube is out and thus avoids drawing the gastric contents into the trachea.
A client who is being treated for acute heart failure has the following vital signs: blood pressure (BP), 85/50 mm Hg; pulse, 96 beats per minute; respirations, 26 breaths per minute. The primary health care provider prescribes digoxin. To evaluate a therapeutic response to this medication, which changes in the client's vital signs should the nurse expect?
- A. BP 85/50 mm Hg, pulse 60 beats per minute, respirations 26 breaths per minute
- B. BP 98/60 mm Hg, pulse 80 beats per minute, respirations 24 breaths per minute
- C. BP 130/70 mm Hg, pulse 104 beats per minute, respirations 20 breaths per minute
- D. BP 110/40 mm Hg, pulse 110 beats per minute, respirations 20 breaths per minute
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The main function of digoxin is inotropic. It produces increased myocardial contractility that is associated with an increased cardiac output. This causes a rise in the BP in a client with heart failure. Digoxin also has a negative chronotropic effect (decreases heart rate) and will therefore cause a slowing of the heart rate. As cardiac output improves, there should be an improvement in respirations as well. The remaining choices do not reflect the physiological changes attributed to this medication.
The nurse plans care for a client diagnosed with end-stage renal disease (ESRD). Which assessment findings does the nurse expect to find documented in the client's medical record? Select all that apply.
- A. Edema
- B. Anemia
- C. Polyuria
- D. Bradycardia
- E. Hypotension
- F. Osteoporosis
Correct Answer: A,B
Rationale: The manifestations of ESRD are the result of impaired kidney function. Two functions of the kidney are maintenance of water balance in the body and the secretion of erythropoietin, which stimulates red blood cell formation in bone marrow. Impairment of these functions results in edema and anemia. Kidney failure results in decreased urine production and increased blood pressure. Tachycardia is a result of increased fluid load on the heart. Osteoporosis is not a common finding with ESRD.
A client has developed atrial fibrillation resulting in a ventricular rate of 150 beats per minute. The nurse should assess the client for which effects of this cardiac occurrence? Select all that apply.
- A. Dyspnea
- B. Flat neck veins
- C. Nausea and vomiting
- D. Chest pain or discomfort
- E. Hypotension and dizziness
- F. Hypertension and headache
Correct Answer: A,D,E
Rationale: The client with uncontrolled atrial fibrillation with a ventricular rate over 100 beats per minute is at risk for low cardiac output caused by loss of atrial kick. The nurse should assess the client for palpitations, chest pain or discomfort, hypotension, pulse deficit, fatigue, weakness, dizziness, syncope, shortness of breath, and distended neck veins. Neither headache nor nausea and vomiting are associated with the effects of uncontrolled atrial fibrillation.