Nokea
In the context of an average ejaculation, which of the following statements is true about sperm?
- A. The average count of sperm in the ejaculate is 2.5 billion.
- B. Sperm in the ejaculate find the ovum by following the current of the fluid coming from the cervix.
- C. Only 1 in 1,000 sperm in the ejaculate will ever approach an ovum.
- D. Most of the sperm in the ejaculate move about in a random pattern in the vagina.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Out of millions of sperm released during ejaculation, only a small fraction, about 1 in 1,000, will approach the ovum. This statement is true as sperm face many obstacles and challenges on their journey to reach and fertilize an ovum. Choice A is incorrect because the average count of sperm in an ejaculate is typically in the millions, not billions. Choice B is incorrect as sperm do not find the ovum by following the current of fluid; they navigate using other mechanisms. Choice D is incorrect because while some sperm may move randomly in the vagina, the ones that approach the ovum do so through a more purposeful and directed movement.
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What causes Down's syndrome?
- A. Alcohol abuse by the mother at the time of conception.
- B. Sex-linked chromosomal abnormalities.
- C. An extra chromosome on the 21st pair.
- D. Drug abuse by the mother during pregnancy.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Down's syndrome, also known as trisomy 21, is caused by the presence of an extra chromosome on the 21st pair. Choice A is incorrect as alcohol abuse is not the cause of Down's syndrome. Choice B is incorrect because Down's syndrome is not related to sex-linked chromosomal abnormalities. Choice D is also incorrect as drug abuse by the mother during pregnancy is not the cause of Down's syndrome.
A nurse is caring for an infant who has signs of neonatal abstinence syndrome. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Provide a calm environment
- B. Monitor blood glucose levels every hour
- C. Initiate seizure precautions
- D. Place the infant on their back with legs extended
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Initiating seizure precautions is crucial when caring for an infant with neonatal abstinence syndrome due to the increased risk of seizures. Providing a calm environment (Choice A) is important to reduce stimulation as these infants may be irritable. Monitoring blood glucose levels (Choice B) is not typically a priority in neonatal abstinence syndrome unless specific signs or symptoms suggest the need for this assessment. Placing the infant on their back with legs extended (Choice D) does not directly address the potential complications associated with neonatal abstinence syndrome, such as seizures.
A nurse is developing an educational program about hemolytic diseases in newborns for a group of newly licensed nurses. Which of the following genetic information should the nurse include in the program as a cause of hemolytic disease?
- A. The mother is Rh positive, and the father is Rh negative
- B. The mother is Rh negative, and the father is Rh positive
- C. The mother and the father are both Rh positive
- D. The mother and the father are both Rh negative
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'The mother is Rh negative, and the father is Rh positive.' Hemolytic disease of the newborn occurs when an Rh-negative mother carries an Rh-positive fetus, leading to Rh incompatibility. In this scenario, the mother produces antibodies against the Rh antigen present in the fetus, which can result in hemolysis of the fetal red blood cells. Choices A, C, and D do not describe the Rh incompatibility that leads to hemolytic disease in newborns. Therefore, they are incorrect.
When assessing a woman in the first stage of labor, which clinical finding will alert the nurse that uterine contractions are effective?
- A. Dilation of the cervix.
- B. Descent of the fetus to -2 station.
- C. Rupture of the amniotic membranes.
- D. Increase in bloody show.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: During the first stage of labor, effective uterine contractions lead to cervical dilation. Dilation of the cervix is a key indicator that uterine contractions are progressing labor. Descent of the fetus to -2 station (Choice B) is related to the fetal position in the pelvis and not a direct indicator of uterine contraction effectiveness. Rupture of the amniotic membranes (Choice C) signifies the rupture of the fluid-filled sac surrounding the fetus and does not directly reflect uterine contraction effectiveness. An increase in bloody show (Choice D) can be a sign of impending labor, but it is not a direct indicator of uterine contraction effectiveness.
Why is a client with gestational diabetes being scheduled for an amniocentesis when the fetus has an estimated weight of eight pounds (3629 grams) at 36 weeks gestation? What information is the amniocentesis seeking to obtain?
- A. Presence of a neural tube defect.
- B. Chromosomal abnormalities.
- C. Gender of the fetus.
- D. Fetal lung maturity.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: An amniocentesis in this scenario is most likely being performed to assess fetal lung maturity. This is necessary when considering early delivery due to macrosomia (large fetal size), which is a common concern in gestational diabetes. Evaluating fetal lung maturity is crucial to determine if the fetus's lungs are developed enough to support breathing independently outside the womb. The presence of a neural tube defect and chromosomal abnormalities are not typically assessed through amniocentesis in this situation, and determining the gender of the fetus is not the primary purpose of the procedure here.