Nokea
In the electrocardiogram of a 40-year old male, the QRS amplitude in lead I and aVF measured (+) 10 and (-)10mV respectively. The frontal QRS axis is
- A. (+) 15°
- B. (-) 45°
- C. (-) 75°
- D. (-) 90°
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The frontal QRS axis is (-) 45° given the QRS amplitudes in leads I and aVF.
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Restrictive cardiomyopathy (RCM) is characterized by all the following EXCEPT
- A. normal ventricular chamber dimensions
- B. normal myocardial wall thickness
- C. preserved systolic function
- D. normal atrial chamber dimensions
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Restrictive cardiomyopathy is characterized by impaired ventricular filling and high diastolic pressures despite normal systolic function.
An 18-month-old with a myelomeningocele is undergoing a cardiac catheterization. The mother expresses concern about the use of dye in the procedure. The child does not have any allergies. In addition to an iodine allergy, which other allergy should the nurse bring to the attention of the catheterization staff?
- A. Soy
- B. Latex
- C. Penicillin
- D. Dairy
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Children with spina bifida (myelomeningocele) are often allergic to latex; catheter balloons and other materials may contain latex.
A client tells the nurse that her biopsy results indicate that the cancer cells are well-differentiated. How should the nurse respond?
- A. Ask the client if the healthcare provider has given her any information about the classification of her cancer
- B. Tell the client that well-differentiated cancer cells usually have a poor prognosis.
- C. Reassure the client that the cancer is not serious.
- D. Encourage the client to seek a second opinion for confirmation of the diagnosis.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Well-differentiated cancer cells typically indicate a slower-growing tumor. Clarifying the client's understanding ensures accurate communication and emotional support.
The most common cause for testicular pain in boys in 2-10 years of age is
- A. Testicular torsion
- B. Torsion of appendix testis
- C. Epididymitis
- D. Congenital varicocele
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Torsion of the appendix testis is the most common cause of testicular pain in boys aged 2-10 years, as it involves the twisting of a small vestigial remnant.
In a child with scabies, which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
- A. Permethrin
- B. Benzoyl peroxide
- C. Hydrocortisone
- D. Calamine lotion
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Permethrin cream is the most effective treatment for scabies, as it targets the mites causing the infestation.