Nokea
In the presence of picrotoxin, diazepam is less efficacious at causing sedation, regardless of the dose. Picrotoxin by it self has no sedative effect even at the highest dose. Which of the following is correct?
- A. Picrotoxin is not a competitive antagonist
- B. Diazepam is a full agonist, and picrotoxin is a partial agonist
- C. Diazepam is less efficacious than is picrotoxin
- D. Diazepam is less potent than is picrotoxin
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Picrotoxin reduces diazepam's maximal effect (efficacy), not potency, indicating noncompetitive antagonism.
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This drug is a respiratory stimulant:
- A. Doxapram
- B. Promethazine
- C. Dornase α
- D. Oxygen
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Doxapram stimulates breathing by acting on the respiratory center in the brainstem.
Following are the sign and symptoms of acute morphine poisoning EXCEPT
- A. Respiratory depression with shallow breathing
- B. Hyperthermia
- C. Pin-point pupil
- D. Hypotension
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Acute morphine poisoning typically causes respiratory depression, miosis (pin-point pupils), and hypotension, but hypothermia, not hyperthermia, is common due to opioid-induced CNS depression.
Martin is a 60-year-old patient with hypertension. The first-line decongestant to prescribe would be:
- A. Oral pseudoephedrine
- B. Oral phenylephrine
- C. Nasal oxymetazoline
- D. Nasal azelastine
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Nasal oxymetazoline , a topical decongestant, has less systemic effect on blood pressure than oral options ; azelastine is an antihistamine.
A nurse is preparing a teaching plan for a client who is prescribed an oral medication. As part of the plan, the nurse expects to describe the importance of absorption. The nurse would integrate knowledge of which of the following as a mechanism for absorption in the gastrointestinal tract? Select one that does not apply.
- A. Active transport
- B. Transposition
- C. Passive transport
- D. Pinocytosis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: During absorption, the drug particles in the GI tract are moved into the body fluids via active transport, passive transport, and pinocytosis.
A 49-year-old woman with a history of hypertension is treated with spironolactone. She has good blood pressure control and in the last 6 months has shown an improvement in her hirsutism. What is the most likely explanation for these findings?
- A. Androgen receptor inhibition of the hair follicle
- B. Drug toxicity
- C. Hypoaldosteronism
- D. Testosterone levels are elevated
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Spironolactone's anti-androgenic effects inhibit androgen receptors, reducing hirsutism, alongside its aldosterone antagonism for hypertension.