Nokea
In what order should the nurse assess a lethargic one-hour-old infant brought to the nursery?
- A. Heel stick
- B. Respirations
- C. Heart rate
- D. Temperature
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: When assessing a lethargic one-hour-old infant, the nurse should prioritize assessing the most critical parameters first. Temperature and heart rate are vital signs that provide immediate information about the infant's well-being. Therefore, the correct order of assessment should be temperature, heart rate, respirations, and then a heel stick. Temperature is crucial to determine if the infant is hypothermic or hyperthermic, while heart rate gives insight into the circulatory system's function. Respirations follow to evaluate the infant's breathing pattern. Lastly, the heel stick is important for certain screenings but is not as urgent as evaluating temperature and heart rate in a lethargic infant.
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The nurse is assessing a client with Addison's disease who is weak, dizzy, disoriented, and has dry oral mucous membranes, poor skin turgor, and sunken eyes. Vital signs are blood pressure 94/44, heart rate 123 beats/minute, respiration 22 breaths/minute. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Assess extremity strength and resistance
- B. Report a sodium level of 132 mEq/L or mmol/L (SI units)
- C. Measure and record the cardiac QRS complex
- D. Check current finger stick glucose
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The client's symptoms suggest possible adrenal crisis or hypoglycemia. Checking glucose is a priority to rule out hypoglycemia, which requires immediate intervention. The client is presenting with symptoms indicative of hypoglycemia, which can be life-threatening if not promptly addressed. Assessing extremity strength, reporting sodium levels, or measuring the cardiac QRS complex are not the most urgent actions in this scenario.
For a client with pneumonia, the prescription states, "Oxygen at liters/min per nasal cannula PRN difficult breathing." Which nursing intervention is effective in preventing oxygen toxicity?
- A. Avoiding the administration of oxygen at high levels for extended periods.
- B. Administering a sedative at bedtime to slow the client's respiratory rate.
- C. Removing the nasal cannula during the night to prevent oxygen buildup.
- D. Running oxygen through a hydration source prior to administration.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer because prolonged exposure to high levels of oxygen can lead to oxygen toxicity. Administering oxygen at high levels for extended periods can overwhelm the body's natural defenses against high oxygen levels, causing toxicity. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B is unrelated to preventing oxygen toxicity. Choice C is unsafe as removing the nasal cannula can deprive the client of necessary oxygen. Choice D, running oxygen through a hydration source, is not a standard practice for preventing oxygen toxicity.
A client has had several episodes of clear, watery diarrhea that started yesterday. What action should the nurse implement?
- A. Administer a prescribed PRN antiemetic
- B. Assess the client for the presence of hemorrhoids
- C. Check the client's hemoglobin level
- D. Review the client's current list of medications
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement in a client experiencing clear, watery diarrhea is to review the client's current list of medications. Certain medications can cause diarrhea as a side effect, so identifying any potential culprits is essential. Administering an antiemetic (Choice A) is not appropriate for diarrhea, as antiemetics are used to control nausea and vomiting, not diarrhea. Assessing for hemorrhoids (Choice B) is not the priority when the client is experiencing watery diarrhea; addressing the root cause is crucial. Checking the client's hemoglobin level (Choice C) is not the immediate action needed for this situation as it does not directly address the cause of diarrhea.
A client with a BMI of 60.2 kg/m² is admitted to the intensive care unit 3 weeks after gastric bypass with gastric rupture and impending multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS). What should the nurse prepare to implement first?
- A. Mechanical ventilation
- B. Platelet transfusion
- C. Loop diuretic therapy
- D. Cyanocobalamin administration
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In this critical situation with gastric rupture and impending MODS, the priority intervention should be mechanical ventilation. This client is at risk of respiratory compromise due to the severity of the condition. Platelet transfusion (Choice B) is not the priority as there is no indication of significant bleeding. Loop diuretic therapy (Choice C) and cyanocobalamin administration (Choice D) are not the immediate priorities in this scenario and would not address the urgent need for respiratory support.
A client with complaints of shortness of breath and abdominal pain 1 week after bariatric surgery is admitted for follow-up evaluation. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Rectal temperature of 101°F
- B. Complaints of left shoulder pain
- C. Blood pressure of 88/50 mmHg
- D. Sustained sinus tachycardia
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A blood pressure of 88/50 mmHg indicates possible hypovolemia or shock, which requires immediate attention. Hypotension can be a sign of decreased perfusion to vital organs, potentially leading to organ failure. The other options, such as a rectal temperature of 101°F, complaints of left shoulder pain, or sustained sinus tachycardia, while important, do not present the same level of immediate threat to the client's well-being as a critically low blood pressure.