Nokea
A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is admitted for antibiotic treatment of a leg ulcer. Which signs and symptoms, indicative of hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS), should the nurse report to the healthcare provider? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Increased heart rate
- B. Visual disturbances
- C. Presence of uremic frost
- D. Decreased mentation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct signs and symptoms indicative of hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS) include increased heart rate, visual disturbances, and decreased mentation. These symptoms are often associated with HHNS due to the high blood glucose levels. Uremic frost, a sign of advanced kidney disease, is not typically associated with HHNS. Therefore, choices B and D are incorrect. However, choice C, 'Presence of uremic frost,' is incorrect as it is not typically associated with HHNS.
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The parents of a child who had surgical repair of a myelomeningocele are being taught how to change an occlusive dressing on the child's back. Which statement by the parents indicates that they understand this procedure?
- A. When changing the dressing, the tape should be removed slowly to prevent trauma to the skin
- B. To prevent infection, the dressing should be kept dry to avoid excess moisture
- C. The skin incision should be kept moist to promote healing and prevent dryness
- D. The incision should be protected from fecal contamination by an intact dressing
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because protecting the incision from fecal contamination is essential to prevent infection and promote healing in a child with a myelomeningocele. This is crucial as fecal matter can introduce harmful bacteria to the wound. Choice A is incorrect as removing the tape slowly to prevent trauma to the skin is a general guideline but not specific to preventing infection. Choice B is incorrect because keeping the dressing dry can lead to complications as the wound needs a moist environment to heal properly. Choice C is incorrect as keeping the skin incision moist may promote infection and delay healing, making it an incorrect statement for postoperative care.
A client with a BMI of 60.2 kg/m² is admitted to the intensive care unit 3 weeks after gastric bypass with gastric rupture and impending multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS). What should the nurse prepare to implement first?
- A. Mechanical ventilation
- B. Platelet transfusion
- C. Loop diuretic therapy
- D. Cyanocobalamin administration
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In this critical situation with gastric rupture and impending MODS, the priority intervention should be mechanical ventilation. This client is at risk of respiratory compromise due to the severity of the condition. Platelet transfusion (Choice B) is not the priority as there is no indication of significant bleeding. Loop diuretic therapy (Choice C) and cyanocobalamin administration (Choice D) are not the immediate priorities in this scenario and would not address the urgent need for respiratory support.
Which type of wound would most likely require immediate intervention by the healthcare provider?
- A. Laceration
- B. Abrasion
- C. Contusion
- D. Ulceration
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A laceration would most likely require immediate intervention by the healthcare provider due to its deeper tissue damage, significant bleeding, and higher risk of infection compared to abrasions, contusions, and ulcerations. Lacerations often need prompt attention to control bleeding, clean the wound, and reduce the risk of infection. Abrasions are superficial wounds that usually do not require urgent attention as they tend to heal well on their own with basic wound care. Contusions are bruises that typically resolve on their own without immediate intervention. Ulcerations are open sores that may require intervention but not necessarily immediate action unless complicated by infection or other issues.
During an admission assessment on an HIV positive client diagnosed with Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia (PCP), which symptoms should the nurse carefully observe the client for?
- A. Weight loss exceeding 10 percent of baseline body weight
- B. Altered mental status and tachypnea
- C. Creamy white patches in the oral cavity
- D. Normal ABGs with wet lung sounds in all lung fields
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Altered mental status and tachypnea. These symptoms are indicative of PCP and severe HIV progression. Weight loss exceeding 10 percent of baseline body weight (choice A) may be seen in HIV/AIDS but is not specific to PCP. Creamy white patches in the oral cavity (choice C) are characteristic of oral thrush, which is more commonly associated with Candida infections in HIV patients. Normal ABGs with wet lung sounds in all lung fields (choice D) would not be expected with PCP, as it typically presents with hypoxemia and diffuse bilateral infiltrates on chest imaging.
A client has had several episodes of clear, watery diarrhea that started yesterday. What action should the nurse implement?
- A. Administer a prescribed PRN antiemetic
- B. Assess the client for the presence of hemorrhoids
- C. Check the client's hemoglobin level
- D. Review the client's current list of medications
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement in a client experiencing clear, watery diarrhea is to review the client's current list of medications. Certain medications can cause diarrhea as a side effect, so identifying any potential culprits is essential. Administering an antiemetic (Choice A) is not appropriate for diarrhea, as antiemetics are used to control nausea and vomiting, not diarrhea. Assessing for hemorrhoids (Choice B) is not the priority when the client is experiencing watery diarrhea; addressing the root cause is crucial. Checking the client's hemoglobin level (Choice C) is not the immediate action needed for this situation as it does not directly address the cause of diarrhea.