Nokea
A nurse is instructing a patient on the role of folic acid in preconception care. What is the correct explanation?
- A. Folic acid prevents iron deficiency anemia in pregnancy.
- B. Folic acid reduces the risk of neural tube defects in the fetus.
- C. Folic acid is only necessary during the first trimester of pregnancy.
- D. Folic acid enhances the absorption of calcium and vitamin D.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because folic acid plays a crucial role in reducing the risk of neural tube defects in the fetus during early pregnancy. Folic acid is essential for proper development of the neural tube, which forms the baby's brain and spinal cord. This is why it is particularly important during preconception care and in the early stages of pregnancy.
Choice A is incorrect because folic acid is not specifically for preventing iron deficiency anemia in pregnancy. Choice C is incorrect as folic acid is important throughout pregnancy, not just in the first trimester. Choice D is incorrect because folic acid does not directly enhance the absorption of calcium and vitamin D.
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A genetic counselor's report states, 'The genetic nomenclature for this fetus is 46, XX.' How should the nurse who reads this report interpret the cytogenetic results?
- A. The baby is female with a normal number of chromosomes.
- B. The baby is hermaphroditic male with female chromosomes.
- C. The baby is male with an undisclosed genetic anomaly.
- D. There is insufficient information to answer this question.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: 46, XX indicates a genetically normal female.
What is the significance of progesterone in confirming ovulation?
- A. Low progesterone levels indicate successful ovulation.
- B. Elevated progesterone levels confirm that ovulation has occurred.
- C. Progesterone levels do not fluctuate during the cycle.
- D. Progesterone testing is only relevant during pregnancy.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Elevated progesterone levels confirm that ovulation has occurred. Progesterone is produced by the corpus luteum after ovulation, supporting the uterine lining for potential implantation. Elevated progesterone levels indicate a functional corpus luteum, which only occurs after ovulation. Low progesterone levels do not indicate successful ovulation as they may suggest anovulation or inadequate luteal phase support. Progesterone levels fluctuate during the menstrual cycle, peaking post-ovulation. Progesterone testing is not only relevant during pregnancy but also in assessing ovulation and menstrual cycle health.
A male client has green color blindness, an X-linked recessive genetic disorder. His wife has no affected genes. Which of the following statements by the nurse is true regarding the couple's potential for having a child who is color blind?
- A. All male children will be color blind.
- B. All female children will be color blind.
- C. All male children will be carriers for color blindness.
- D. All female children will be carriers for color blindness.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Female children will be carriers, as they inherit the gene from their father.
During preconception counseling, the nurse discusses the impact of advanced maternal age. What should the nurse emphasize?
- A. Advanced maternal age has no impact on pregnancy outcomes.
- B. Fertility declines with age, increasing the risk of complications.
- C. Only the father's age affects pregnancy success.
- D. Advanced maternal age reduces the need for prenatal care.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because fertility declines with age, leading to increased risk of complications such as chromosomal abnormalities and miscarriages. This is important to emphasize during preconception counseling. Choice A is incorrect as advanced maternal age does impact pregnancy outcomes. Choice C is incorrect because both maternal and paternal age can affect pregnancy success. Choice D is incorrect as advanced maternal age actually increases the need for additional prenatal care due to higher risk factors.
What is the primary purpose of performing a semen analysis during infertility testing?
- A. To determine the presence of infections.
- B. To evaluate sperm count, motility, and morphology.
- C. To check for hormonal imbalances.
- D. To test for genetic abnormalities in sperm.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The primary purpose of performing a semen analysis during infertility testing is to evaluate sperm count, motility, and morphology. This is crucial in assessing male fertility potential. Sperm count indicates the quantity of sperm, motility refers to their ability to move effectively, and morphology assesses the shape and structure of sperm. These factors directly impact the likelihood of successful fertilization. Checking for infections (choice A) is important but not the primary purpose. Hormonal imbalances (choice C) are typically evaluated through blood tests, not semen analysis. Testing for genetic abnormalities in sperm (choice D) is a separate test and not the primary focus of a semen analysis.