Nokea
Incidental antepartum haemorrhage is also referred to as
- A. Intraplacental haemorrhage
- B. Intrapartum haemorrhage
- C. Extraplacental haemorrhage
- D. Preterm haemorrhage
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Extraplacental haemorrhage. Incidental antepartum haemorrhage refers to bleeding occurring outside the placenta, such as from the cervix or vaginal walls, before the onset of labor. This is not associated with the placenta itself (intraplacental - choice A). Similarly, it does not occur during labor (intrapartum - choice B) or specifically before term (preterm - choice D). Extraplacental haemorrhage captures the essence of bleeding unrelated to the placenta during the antepartum period.
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The main feature in the initial stage of shock is
- A. Cyanosis
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Sweat beads
- D. Hypotension
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tachycardia. In the initial stage of shock, the body tries to compensate for decreased perfusion by increasing heart rate to maintain blood flow to vital organs. Cyanosis (A) is a late sign of shock due to inadequate oxygenation. Sweat beads (C) are a non-specific response and not a defining feature of shock. Hypotension (D) typically occurs in the later stages of shock as the body's compensatory mechanisms start to fail. Tachycardia is the earliest and most consistent sign of shock, reflecting the body's attempt to maintain cardiac output.
In face presentation, obstructed labor is likely to result because
- A. The face is an ill-fitting presenting part
- B. Of the larger presenting diameters
- C. Of failure in molding unlike in vertex delivery
- D. Of presence of a caput succedaneum
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In face presentation, the face is an ill-fitting presenting part, leading to obstructed labor. The face has larger diameters, making it difficult to pass through the birth canal. This differs from vertex delivery where the head can mold to fit. Caput succedaneum is swelling of the soft tissues on the baby's head and does not directly cause obstructed labor.
The comprehensive serologic assessment of a patient with Cushings syndrome is likely to produce which constellation of findings?
- A. Low potassium, high glucose, high white blood cell count
- B. High sodium, polycythemia, low BUN
- C. Low sodium, low potassium, high BUN
- D. High sodium, high chloride, high RBCs
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. In Cushing's syndrome, there is excess cortisol production leading to sodium retention, potassium loss, and increased protein breakdown. Low sodium and potassium levels along with high BUN are commonly seen in patients with Cushing's syndrome.
A: Low potassium and high glucose are possible findings, but high white blood cell count is not typically associated with Cushing's syndrome.
B: High sodium and polycythemia are not typical findings in Cushing's syndrome, and low BUN is not consistent with the protein breakdown seen in this condition.
D: High sodium and high chloride levels can be seen, but high RBCs are not typically associated with Cushing's syndrome.
The PRIORITY health message to share with a client in the recovery room immediately following cesarean section includes
- A. Frequent coughing & deep breathing
- B. Importance of perineal self-care
- C. Importance of early ambulation
- D. Signs of puerperal infections
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Importance of early ambulation. After a cesarean section, early ambulation is crucial to prevent complications like blood clots and promote circulation. It helps prevent post-operative complications. Choice A is important for respiratory health but not the priority right after surgery. Choice B focuses on perineal care which is important but not the immediate priority. Choice D is important, but recognizing signs of infection can wait until the client is more stable. Early ambulation is key to preventing complications and aiding in recovery.
Mrs. Jenner is a 41-year-old female who is being evaluated for persistent nausea. She had an abdominal CT scan that reported three hepatic hemangiomas ranging from 3 to 5 cm. The AGACNP knows that the appropriate response to this report is to
- A. Arrange for large-bore needle biopsy
- B. Order hepatic ultrasound annually to follow progression
- C. Consult surgery for resection
- D. Document the finding in the patient’s chart
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale:
A needle biopsy is appropriate for definitive diagnosis of hepatic hemangiomas, ruling out other liver lesions. It helps determine if they are benign or malignant. This will guide further management decisions.
Summary:
B: Annual ultrasound is unnecessary for benign hemangiomas.
C: Surgery is not indicated for asymptomatic hepatic hemangiomas.
D: Documenting the finding is important but not the appropriate next step in management.