Nokea
Infants of mothers who had adequate nutrition during pregnancy do not require iron supplements or a diet rich in iron until about 3 months of age. Why is this?
- A. Growth of the infant does not require iron until after the 3rd month
- B. The fetal liver stores enough iron to meet the infant’s needs until the third month
- C. Synthesis of new red blood cells begins after 3 months
- D. Muscle cells that develop before the 3rd month do not contain myoglobin
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: The fetal liver stores enough iron to meet the infant’s needs until the third month. During pregnancy, the fetus accumulates iron stores in the liver from the mother, which can sustain the infant's iron needs for the first few months of life. This stored iron is gradually utilized by the infant as the maternal iron supply diminishes post-birth.
Explanation of why the other choices are incorrect:
A: Growth of the infant does require iron even in the early months for various metabolic processes and functions.
C: Synthesis of new red blood cells starts shortly after birth, not necessarily after 3 months.
D: Myoglobin is not directly related to iron supplementation needs in infants and is unrelated to the timing of iron supplementation requirements.
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Failure of the testes to descend into mitotic cell divisions occur as the the scrotum is a condition known as zygote travels down the uterine ________.
- A. phimosis
- B. the acrosomal reaction
- C. cryptorchidism
- D. cleavage
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: cryptorchidism. Cryptorchidism is the condition where one or both testes fail to descend into the scrotum. This leads to impaired spermatogenesis as the temperature in the abdominal cavity is too high for proper sperm production. Phimosis (A) is the narrowing of the opening of the foreskin, unrelated to testicular descent. The acrosomal reaction (B) is a process during fertilization, not related to testicular descent. Cleavage (D) refers to the rapid mitotic cell divisions of the zygote, not associated with testicular descent.
Where does the epididymis direct sperm cells into?
- A. vas efferens
- B. vas deferens
- C. rete testis
- D. prostate gland
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The epididymis directs sperm cells into the vas deferens. Sperm mature in the epididymis and are stored there until ejaculation. The vas deferens then carries the mature sperm from the epididymis to the urethra for ejaculation. The other choices are incorrect because the vas efferens carries sperm from the rete testis to the epididymis, the rete testis is a network of tubules where sperm is collected from the seminiferous tubules, and the prostate gland secretes fluids that contribute to semen but does not direct sperm flow.
The hormone that works with estrogen to prepare the endometrium for implantation of a fertilized egg is
- A. LH
- B. FSH
- C. ADH
- D. progesterone
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Progesterone is the correct answer because it is the hormone that works with estrogen to prepare the endometrium for implantation of a fertilized egg. Progesterone helps thicken the endometrium, creating a favorable environment for implantation. LH and FSH are involved in ovulation and follicle development, not endometrial preparation. ADH is antidiuretic hormone, which regulates water balance in the body, not related to endometrial preparation.
A client is asking the nurse questions about the diagnosis of endometriosis. The nurse teaches the client that endometrial tissue is found outside the uterus and that the major symptom that a client experiences is which of the following?
- A. Pain
- B. Infection
- C. Minimal bleeding
- D. Cramping
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Pain is the primary symptom associated with endometriosis.
A 22 year old male presents in your clinic, c/o pain in his testicle and penis. The pain began last night and has steadily become worse. He hurts when he urinates. He has not attempted intercourse since the pain began. He has tried Tylenol and Ibuprofen without improvement. Denies fever or night sweats. He has had 4 previous sexual partners and has had a new partner for the last month. She is using oral contraceptives and they do not use a condom. On exam, you see a young man lying on his side, mildly ill. His temp is 100.2. There are no visible lesions on the penis, or discharge from the meatus. The scrotum appears normal. Palpation of the testes reveals severe tenderness at the superior pole of the normal-sized left testicle. He also has tenderness when you palpate the structures superior to the testicle through the scrotal wall. The right testicle is unremarkable. An examining finger is placed through each inguinal ring without bulges noted with bearing down. Urine analysis shows WBCs and bacteria. What diagnosis of the male genitalia is most likely?
- A. Acute orchitis
- B. Acute epididymitis
- C. Torsion of the spermatic cord
- D. Prostatitis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Acute epididymitis. The patient's symptoms of pain in the testicle and penis, worsened pain with urination, and presence of WBCs and bacteria in the urine analysis are indicative of an infection. The severe tenderness at the superior pole of the left testicle and tenderness on palpation of structures superior to the testicle through the scrotal wall suggest involvement of the epididymis. The risk factors of multiple sexual partners and recent unprotected intercourse also support the diagnosis of epididymitis, which is commonly caused by sexually transmitted infections. Acute orchitis (choice A) typically presents with swelling and tenderness of the entire testicle, not just the epididymis. Torsion of the spermatic cord (choice C) presents with sudden onset severe testicular pain and may have a high-riding testicle. Prostatitis (choice D) presents with symptoms related to the prostate gland, such as pelvic