Nokea
Jenny is one of your favorite patients who usually shares a joke with you and is nattily dressed. Today she is dressed in old jeans, lacks makeup, and avoids eye contact. To what do you attribute these changes?
- A. She is lacking sleep.
- B. She is fatigued from work.
- C. She is running into financial difficulty.
- D. She is depressed.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The changes in Jenny's appearance and behavior, such as wearing old jeans, lack of makeup, and avoiding eye contact, are suggestive of potential signs of depression. When a person is feeling depressed, they may lose interest in their appearance, have changes in sleep patterns leading to fatigue, and exhibit avoidance behaviors like avoiding eye contact. It is essential to approach Jenny with empathy and offer support as depression can significantly impact one's well-being and daily functioning. It would be beneficial for Jenny to seek professional help and guidance to address any underlying issues causing her to feel this way.
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An elderly woman with a history of coronary bypass comes in with severe, diffuse, abdominal pain. Strangely, during your examination, the pain is not made worse by pressing on the abdomen. What do you suspect?
- A. Malingering
- B. Neuropathy
- C. Ischemia
- D. Physical abuse
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In an elderly woman with a history of coronary bypass surgery presenting with severe, diffuse abdominal pain that is not worsened by abdominal palpation, neuropathy should be suspected. Neuropathy refers to nerve damage, which can result in abnormal sensations of pain, often described as burning, shooting, or stabbing. Abdominal neuropathy can be caused by various conditions such as diabetes, alcohol abuse, vitamin deficiencies, or certain medications. The absence of worsening pain upon palpation makes organic abdominal pathology less likely, suggesting a neuropathic etiology. In this case, further evaluation and testing for neuropathy would be warranted.
You are excited about a positive test finding you have just noticed on physical examination of your patient. You go on to do more examination, laboratory work, and diagnostic tests, only to find that there is no sign of the disease you thought would correlate with the finding. This same experience happens several times. What should you conclude?
- A. Consider not doing this test routinely.
- B. Use this test when you have a higher suspicion for a certain correlating condition.
- C. Continue using the test, perhaps doing less laboratory work and diagnostics.
- D. Omit this test from future examinations.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The repeated scenario of finding a positive test result that does not correlate with the suspected disease indicates a lack of specificity for the test in question. In such cases, it is important to use the test when there is a higher suspicion for a specific condition that is known to correlate with the finding. By using the test selectively in situations where it is more likely to provide accurate information, its utility can be maximized and unnecessary further workup can be avoided. This approach allows for a more targeted and efficient use of resources in the diagnostic process.
A patient is concerned about a dark skin lesion on her anterolateral abdomen. It has not changed, and there is no discharge or bleeding. On examination there is a medium brown circular lesion on the anterolateral wall of the abdomen. It is soft, has regular borders, is evenly pigmented, and is about 7 mm in diameter. What is this lesion?
- A. Melanoma
- B. Dysplastic nevus
- C. Supernumerary nipple
- D. Dermatofibroma
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Given the description provided, the lesion appears to be a dermatofibroma. Dermatofibromas are common benign skin lesions that typically present as a firm, solitary nodule on the skin. They commonly occur on the lower extremities but can also be found on the trunk. The characteristics of a dermatofibroma include being firm to the touch, having regular borders, being evenly pigmented, and a diameter typically less than 1 cm to 2 cm. They are usually painless and do not change significantly over time.
A 29-year-old married computer programmer comes to your clinic, complaining of "something strange" going on in his scrotum. Last month while he was doing his testicular self- examination he felt a lump in his left testis. He waited a month and felt the area again, but the lump was still there. He has had some aching in his left testis but denies any pain with urination or sexual intercourse. He denies any fever, malaise, or night sweats. His past medical history consists of groin surgery when he was a baby and a tonsillectomy as a teenager. He eats a healthy diet and works out at the gym five times a week. He denies any tobacco or illegal drugs and drinks alcohol occasionally. His parents are both healthy. On examination you see a muscular, healthy, young-appearing man with unremarkable vital signs. On visualization the penis is circumcised with no lesions; there is a scar in his right inguinal region. There is no lymphadenopathy. Palpation of his scrotum is unremarkable on the right but indicates a large mass on the left. Placing a finger through the inguinal ring on the right, you have the patient bear down. Nothing is felt. You attempt to place your finger through the left inguinal ring but cannot get above the mass. On rectal examination his prostate is unremarkable. What disorder of the testes is most likely the diagnosis?
- A. Hydrocele
- B. Scrotal hernia
- C. Scrotal edema
- D. Varicocele
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The most likely diagnosis in this case is a scrotal hernia. The patient's history of a previous groin surgery as a baby is a key clue, as it increases the risk for developing a hernia. The lump in the left testis with aching, along with the inability to palpate above the mass through the left inguinal ring, suggests that the lump may be a hernia protruding through the inguinal canal into the scrotum. The presence of a scar in the right inguinal region also supports the likelihood of a hernia. The normal prostate on rectal examination rules out any involvement of the prostate in the presentation. Scrotal hernias may present as painless masses in the scrotum, often increasing in size with activities that increase intra-abdominal pressure, such as straining or coughing. Surgical repair is often necessary to prevent complications such as incarceration or strangulation
A patient presents for evaluation of a sharp, aching chest pain which increases with breathing. Which anatomic area would you localize the symptom to?
- A. Musculoskeletal
- B. Reproductive
- C. Urinary
- D. Endocrine
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The symptom described - sharp, aching chest pain that increases with breathing - is typically associated with musculoskeletal issues. The pain worsening with breathing suggests a connection to the movements of the chest wall, which could involve the muscles, bones, or joints in that area. Conditions such as costochondritis (inflammation of the cartilage that connects a rib to the breastbone) or muscle strains in the chest wall are common causes of chest pain that worsens with breathing. This localization to the musculoskeletal system is based on the characteristics of the pain and how it is affected by breathing, helping to narrow down the differential diagnosis.