Nokea
Mrs. Fletcher comes to your office with unilateral pain during chewing, which is chronic. She does not have facial tenderness or tenderness of the scalp. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her pain?
- A. Trigeminal neuralgia
- B. Temporomandibular joint syndrome
- C. Temporal arteritis
- D. Tumor of the mandible
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Mrs. Fletcher's symptoms of unilateral pain during chewing, which is chronic, without facial tenderness or tenderness of the scalp are more suggestive of temporomandibular joint (TMJ) syndrome rather than other conditions listed. TMJ syndrome is characterized by pain and dysfunction of the jaw muscles and the joints that connect the jaw to the skull. The pain is often worsened by chewing or opening the mouth widely. In this case, the absence of facial tenderness or signs of temporal arteritis makes these conditions less likely. Trigeminal neuralgia typically presents with sudden, severe facial pain in the distribution of the trigeminal nerve. Tumor of the mandible would likely present with other symptoms such as swelling, bone destruction, or difficulty with mouth opening and chewing. Temporal arteritis usually presents with symptoms such as headache, scalp tenderness, and visual disturbances. Given Mrs. Fletcher's presentation,
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His head, eyes, ears, nose, and throat examinations are unremarkable. His cardiac examination is normal. On examination of his chest, the diameter seems enlarged. Breath sounds are decreased throughout all lobes. Rhonchi are heard over all lung fields. There is no area of dullness and no increased or decreased fremitus. What thorax or lung disorder is most likely causing his symptoms?
- A. Spontaneous pneumothorax
- B. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
- C. Asthma
- D. Pneumonia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The patient's presentation with an enlarged chest diameter, decreased breath sounds throughout all lobes, and the presence of rhonchi over all lung fields is suggestive of a chronic condition that affects the entire respiratory system. These findings are classic for COPD, a progressive lung disease characterized by airflow limitation. The breath sounds are decreased due to airflow obstruction, and the presence of rhonchi indicates mucus production and airway inflammation commonly seen in COPD. In contrast, a spontaneous pneumothorax would typically present with sudden chest pain and shortness of breath, often in a younger patient with risk factors such as smoking. Asthma would present with wheezing, shortness of breath, and possibly a history of atopy or allergies. Pneumonia would typically present with fever, cough, and focal findings on chest examination, such as crackles or bronchial breath sounds over a consolidated area. In
Which of the following is consistent with good percussion technique?
- A. Allow all of the fingers to touch the chest while performing percussion.
- B. Maintain a stiff wrist and hand.
- C. Leave the plexor finger on the pleximeter after each strike.
- D. Strike the pleximeter over the distal interphalangeal joint.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Leaving the plexor finger on the pleximeter after each strike is consistent with good percussion technique. This helps to maintain stability and precision during percussion by providing a consistent point of contact for accurate assessment of the underlying structures. This technique also helps to control the force and angle of the percussive strike, ensuring accurate interpretation of the resulting sounds produced. Maintaining this contact can enhance the effectiveness of percussion as a diagnostic tool in physical examinations.
A 29-year-old married computer programmer comes to your clinic, complaining of "something strange" going on in his scrotum. Last month while he was doing his testicular self- examination he felt a lump in his left testis. He waited a month and felt the area again, but the lump was still there. He has had some aching in his left testis but denies any pain with urination or sexual intercourse. He denies any fever, malaise, or night sweats. His past medical history consists of groin surgery when he was a baby and a tonsillectomy as a teenager. He eats a healthy diet and works out at the gym five times a week. He denies any tobacco or illegal drugs and drinks alcohol occasionally. His parents are both healthy. On examination you see a muscular, healthy, young-appearing man with unremarkable vital signs. On visualization the penis is circumcised with no lesions; there is a scar in his right inguinal region. There is no lymphadenopathy. Palpation of his scrotum is unremarkable on the right but indicates a large mass on the left. Placing a finger through the inguinal ring on the right, you have the patient bear down. Nothing is felt. You attempt to place your finger through the left inguinal ring but cannot get above the mass. On rectal examination his prostate is unremarkable. What disorder of the testes is most likely the diagnosis?
- A. Hydrocele
- B. Scrotal hernia
- C. Scrotal edema
- D. Varicocele
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The most likely diagnosis in this case is a scrotal hernia. The patient's history of a previous groin surgery as a baby is a key clue, as it increases the risk for developing a hernia. The lump in the left testis with aching, along with the inability to palpate above the mass through the left inguinal ring, suggests that the lump may be a hernia protruding through the inguinal canal into the scrotum. The presence of a scar in the right inguinal region also supports the likelihood of a hernia. The normal prostate on rectal examination rules out any involvement of the prostate in the presentation. Scrotal hernias may present as painless masses in the scrotum, often increasing in size with activities that increase intra-abdominal pressure, such as straining or coughing. Surgical repair is often necessary to prevent complications such as incarceration or strangulation
Which area of the arm drains to the epitrochlear nodes?
- A. Ulnar surface of the forearm and hand, little and ring fingers, and ulnar middle finger
- B. Radial surface of the forearm and hand, thumb and index fingers, and radial middle finger
- C. Ulnar surface of the forearm and hand; second, third, and fourth fingers
- D. Radial surface of the forearm and hand; second, third, and fourth fingers
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The area of the arm that drains to the epitrochlear nodes includes the ulnar surface of the forearm and hand, little and ring fingers, and the ulnar side of the middle finger. The epitrochlear nodes are located in the medial aspect of the arm above the elbow, close to the insertion of the biceps brachii muscle. These nodes receive lymphatic drainage from the above-mentioned areas and play a role in the immune response against infections in these regions.
A sudden, painless unilateral vision loss may be caused by which of the following?
- A. Retinal detachment
- B. Corneal ulcer
- C. Acute glaucoma
- D. Uveitis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A sudden, painless unilateral vision loss may be caused by a retinal detachment. Retinal detachment occurs when the retina, which is the light-sensitive tissue lining the back of the eye, pulls away from its normal position. This can lead to visual disturbances, including sudden loss of vision in one eye. Retinal detachment can be a medical emergency and requires prompt evaluation and treatment to prevent permanent vision loss. Other conditions mentioned in the choices, such as corneal ulcer, acute glaucoma, and uveitis, may also cause vision problems but are less likely to present with a sudden and painless unilateral vision loss as a primary symptom.