Midwifery Practice Questions

Midwifery Practice Questions Related

Review Midwifery Practice Questions related questions and content

M. T. is a 71-year-old female who presents for evaluation of a lump on her chest. She denies any symptomsthere is no pain, erythema, edema, ecchymosis, or open areasit is just a lump. She has no idea how long it has been there and just noticed it a few weeks ago. Physical examination reveals a round, smooth, flesh-colored tumor. It is firm but not hard it has smooth borders. It measures 6 cm in diameter and is non-tender to palpation. The AGACNP suspects that this is a classic presentation of the most common chest wall tumor known as a

  • A. Neurolemma
  • B. Lipoma
  • C. Hemangioma
  • D. Lymphangioma
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lipoma. A lipoma is a common benign tumor made of fat cells. In this case, the patient's presentation of a painless, soft, round, flesh-colored lump with smooth borders is consistent with a lipoma. The absence of symptoms like pain, erythema, or tenderness further supports this diagnosis. Lipomas are usually non-tender to palpation and can grow to a significant size. The other choices (A, C, D) are not the correct answers because they do not align with the characteristics described in the patient's presentation. Neurolemma is associated with nerve sheath tumors, hemangioma with blood vessel tumors, and lymphangioma with lymphatic vessel tumors, none of which match the clinical findings in this case.

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The birth weight of a very low birth weight baby ranges between

  • A. 1000-500 gm
  • B. 500-1500 gm
  • C. 1001-1500 gm
  • D. 1500-2000 gm
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B (500-1500 gm) because very low birth weight babies typically weigh less than 1500 grams at birth. This range encompasses the common weight range for these babies. Option A (1000-500 gm) is too narrow and excludes babies weighing below 500 grams. Option C (1001-1500 gm) is incorrect as it includes babies weighing over 1500 grams. Option D (1500-2000 gm) is incorrect as it includes babies above the typical weight range for very low birth weight babies.

Presence of severe epigastric pain in preeclampsia is associated with hyperacidity.

  • A. TRUE
  • B. FALSE
  • C. -
  • D. -
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: FALSE. Severe epigastric pain in preeclampsia is not associated with hyperacidity but is more likely due to complications such as HELLP syndrome or liver involvement. Preeclampsia is characterized by high blood pressure and proteinuria, not hyperacidity. Therefore, severe epigastric pain in preeclampsia should not be attributed to hyperacidity. Other choices are not applicable.

Jasmine is a 31-year-old female who presents with neck pain. She has a long history of injection drug use and admits to injecting opiates into her neck. Physical examination reveals diffuse tracking and scarring. Today Jasmine has a distinct inability to turn her neck without pain, throat pain, and a temperature of 102.1F. She appears ill and has foul breath. In order to evaluate for a deep neck space infection, the AGACNP orders

  • A. Anteroposterior neck radiography
  • B. CT scan of the neck
  • C. White blood cell (WBC) differential
  • D. Aspiration and culture of fluid
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Aspiration and culture of fluid. Given Jasmine's history of injection drug use, neck pain, inability to turn her neck, elevated temperature, and foul breath, there is a high suspicion of a deep neck space infection. Aspiration and culture of fluid from the affected area will help identify the causative organism and guide appropriate antibiotic therapy. This procedure is essential for definitive diagnosis and management of deep neck infections.

A: Anteroposterior neck radiography is not the most appropriate initial diagnostic test for evaluating deep neck space infections as it may not provide detailed information on the extent or nature of the infection.
B: CT scan of the neck may provide valuable information regarding the extent of the infection, but aspiration and culture of fluid are crucial for identifying the causative organism.
C: White blood cell (WBC) differential may show signs of inflammation, but it does not provide specific information on the causative organism of the infection.

The AGACNP knows that which of the following must be evaluated as a cause of her abdominal pain?

  • A. HELLP syndrome
  • B. Placental abruption
  • C. Spontaneous hepatic rupture
  • D. Preterm labor
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: HELLP syndrome. This must be evaluated as a cause of abdominal pain in a pregnant patient because it is a serious condition characterized by hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelet count. These abnormalities can lead to abdominal pain, especially in the right upper quadrant. Placental abruption (B) presents with vaginal bleeding and uterine tenderness, not specific abdominal pain. Spontaneous hepatic rupture (C) is rare and usually presents with sudden severe abdominal pain. Preterm labor (D) typically presents with regular uterine contractions and lower abdominal discomfort, not specific upper quadrant pain like in HELLP syndrome.

What are the key signs of preeclampsia?

  • A. High blood pressure
  • B. Proteinuria
  • C. Severe headaches
  • D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D (All of the above) because preeclampsia is characterized by high blood pressure, proteinuria, and symptoms like severe headaches. High blood pressure is a hallmark sign, proteinuria indicates kidney damage, and severe headaches can be a symptom of worsening preeclampsia. Therefore, all three signs are crucial for diagnosing preeclampsia. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect individually because they do not encompass all the key signs necessary for diagnosing preeclampsia.

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