Monitoring for a child on methylphenidate for attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) includes:
- A. ADHD symptoms
- B. Routine height and weight checks
- C. Amount of methylphenidate being used
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: All are monitored: symptom control, growth effects, and medication use.
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A patient needs to take 1 g PO of cefadroxil. The drug comes in 500-mg tablets. How many tablets should the patient take?
- A. 0.5 tablet
- B. 1 tablet
- C. 2 tablets
- D. 3 tablets
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Convert 1 g to mg by multiplying 1 g times 1000 mg. There are 500 mg in each tablet. Dividing the 1000-mg prescribed dosage by the 500-mg available dosage, the answer is 2 tablets.
Which statement best describes drug efficacy/toxicity in pediatric patients?
- A. Drug requirements for infants have been extensively studied.
- B. Drug dosage is altered by age and weight in children.
- C. Children always need smaller doses of medication than adults.
- D. Infants and children are not at risk for drug toxicity if the dosage is correct
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Pediatric dosing adjusts for age and weight due to varying metabolism and body composition.
A nurse is planning caring for a client who is has a new prescription for Torsemide. The nurse should plan to monitor for which of the following adverse reactions of this medications? (Select one that does not apply.)
- A. Respiratory acidosis
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Hypotension
- D. Ototoxicity
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Torsemide can cause hypokalemia , hypotension , ototoxicity , and dysrhythmias , typical loop diuretic effects.
Drugs that are designated Schedule II by the U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration:
- A. Are known teratogens during pregnancy
- B. May not be refilled; a new prescription must be written
- C. Have a low abuse potential
- D. May be dispensed without a prescription unless regulated by the state
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Schedule II drugs (e.g., opioids) require new prescriptions without refills due to high abuse potential, unlike teratogenicity or OTC status .
A 64-year-old woman with a history of type 2 diabetes is diagnosed with heart failure. Which of the following medications would be a poor choice for controlling her diabetes?
- A. Exenatide
- B. Glyburide
- C. Nateglinide
- D. Rosiglitazone
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rosiglitazone can worsen heart failure due to fluid retention and edema.