Nokea
Mr. Umali, 52-year-old male is being evaluated for acute ulcerative colitis. im preparing Mr. Umali for a barium enema, the nurse can expect that he will be:
- A. contraindicated with cathartics
- B. given an oil retention enema the morning of the study
- C. instructed to swallow six radiopaque tablets the evening before the study
- D. positioned in ahigh fowler’s position immediately following the procedure
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because cathartics can exacerbate ulcerative colitis symptoms by increasing bowel motility and causing further inflammation. Giving an oil retention enema (choice B) is not necessary for a barium enema. Ingesting radiopaque tablets (choice C) is not typically part of the preparation for a barium enema. Positioning the patient in a high Fowler's position (choice D) is not a specific requirement following the procedure. Overall, avoiding cathartics is crucial in patients with acute ulcerative colitis to prevent worsening of symptoms during the barium enema.
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60 year-old Mrs. Torres arrived just in time for her doctor’s appointment. She complains of pain and stiffness in her back. She is suspected of having osteoporosis. Nurse Ariane will inform Mrs. Torres that the primary complication of osteoporosis is:
- A. Increased trabeculae
- B. poor posture
- C. chronic pain
- D. fractures
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: fractures. Osteoporosis weakens bones, making them more prone to fractures. Fractures are the primary complication of osteoporosis due to decreased bone density. Increased trabeculae (A) is incorrect as osteoporosis leads to decreased bone density, not increased. Poor posture (B) may be a result of osteoporosis but is not its primary complication. Chronic pain (C) can occur with osteoporosis but is not as directly linked as fractures.
Why should the nurse closely monitor older adults when they are receiving IV therapy? Choose all that apply
- A. Because their defense mechanisms are less efficient
- B. Because they are prone to fluid overload
- C. Because they are prone to reduced renal efficiency
- D. Because they have inadequate intake of dietary fiber
Correct Answer: E
Rationale: The correct answer is not provided in the choices. However, if I were to choose from the given options, the most appropriate would be C: "Because they are prone to reduced renal efficiency." This is important because older adults may have decreased kidney function, leading to potential complications with IV therapy. Option A is incorrect as defense mechanisms are not directly related to monitoring IV therapy. Option B is incorrect as fluid overload is a general concern with IV therapy regardless of age. Option D is irrelevant to the need for monitoring IV therapy in older adults.
A patient is being taught the action of digoxin, which is an inotropic agent. The nurse defines an inotropic agent as a medication that has which of the following actions?
- A. Decreases heart rate
- B. Increases conduction time
- C. Increases heart rate
- D. Strengthens heart contraction
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Strengthens heart contraction. Digoxin is an inotropic agent that works by increasing the force of the heart's contractions. This leads to improved cardiac output and helps manage conditions like heart failure. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because digoxin does not decrease heart rate, increase conduction time, or increase heart rate. It specifically targets the strength of the heart's contractions, making option D the most appropriate choice. This action of digoxin is crucial in improving the efficiency of the heart's pumping function.
A client is scheduled for a prostatectomy, and the anesthesiologist plans to use a spinal (sub-arachnoid) block during surgery. In the operating room, the nurse positions the client according to the anesthesiologist’s instructions. Why does the client require special positioning for this type of anesthesia?
- A. To prevent confusion
- B. To prevent cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)
- C. To prevent seizures leakage
- D. To prevent cardiac arrhythmias
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: To prevent cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leakage.
Rationale: During a spinal block, the anesthesiologist injects anesthesia into the subarachnoid space, which contains CSF. Proper positioning ensures that the anesthesia stays in place and prevents leakage of CSF, which could lead to complications such as post-dural puncture headache.
Incorrect choices:
A: To prevent confusion - Irrelevant to the procedure.
C: To prevent seizures leakage - Seizures are not a concern with spinal blocks.
D: To prevent cardiac arrhythmias - Cardiac arrhythmias are not directly related to spinal blocks.
Which of the following settings is most therapeutic for an agitated head-injured patient?
- A. A day room with family visitors and variety of caregivers
- B. A semiprivate room with one or two consistent caregivers
- C. A ward with other head-injured patients and volunteers to assist with needs
- D. A hallway near the nurse’s station with adequate sensory stimulation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A semiprivate room with one or two consistent caregivers is the most therapeutic setting for an agitated head-injured patient. Here's the rationale:
1. Consistency: Having one or two consistent caregivers provides the patient with a stable and familiar environment, which can help reduce agitation.
2. Privacy: A semiprivate room offers more privacy compared to a day room or a ward, which can help minimize external stimuli and promote relaxation.
3. Individualized care: In a semiprivate room, caregivers can focus more on the specific needs of the patient, leading to better management of agitation.
4. Reduced distractions: Being in a semiprivate room minimizes distractions and noise, which can be overwhelming for an agitated head-injured patient.
Summary:
A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not offer the same level of consistency, privacy, individualized care, and reduced distractions as a semiprivate room with one