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Mrs. Adams is scheduled for an intravemous pyelogram (IVP). Nurse Aura wpould be most concerned if the patient makes which of the following comments or statements?
- A. ”I take Senokot (laxative) daily.”
- B. “I often feel like my bladder is full even after voiding.”
- C. “My whole face turns red when I eat mussels.”
- D. “I experience headaches every 2 weeks.”
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because taking a laxative like Senokot can affect the results of an IVP by altering bowel motility and potentially causing inaccurate imaging. Choice B is related to bladder sensation, which is not directly relevant to an IVP. Choice C indicates a possible allergic reaction to mussels, which is unrelated to the procedure. Choice D mentions headaches, which are also not directly linked to an IVP. In summary, only choice A directly impacts the accuracy of the IVP results, making it the most concerning statement for Nurse Aura.
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If a patient has elevated pulmonary vascular pressures, the nurse understands that the patient is most likely to develop which of the ff. physiological cardiac changes?
- A. Left atrial atrophy
- B. Left ventricular hypertrophy
- C. Right atrial atrophy
- D. Right ventricular hypertrophy
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Right ventricular hypertrophy. Elevated pulmonary vascular pressures lead to increased resistance in the pulmonary circulation, causing the right ventricle to work harder to pump blood to the lungs. Over time, this can result in hypertrophy of the right ventricle as it adapts to the increased workload. Left atrial atrophy (A) and right atrial atrophy (C) are unlikely as the atria are not directly affected by elevated pulmonary pressures. Left ventricular hypertrophy (B) is not the correct choice as it typically occurs in response to systemic hypertension, not pulmonary hypertension.
An agitated, confused client arrives in the emergency department. The client’s history includes type 1 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and angina pectoris. Assessment reveals pallor, diaphoresis, headache, and intense hunger. A stat blood glucose sample measures 42mg/dl, and the client is treated for an acute hypoglycemic reaction. After recovery, the nurse teaches the client to treat hypoglycemia by ingesting:
- A. 2 to 5 of a simple carbohydrate.
- B. 18 to 20 g of a simple carbohydrat
- C. 10 to 15 g of a simple carbohydrate.
- D. 25 to 30 g of a simple carbohydrate.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 10 to 15 g of a simple carbohydrate. This amount of carbohydrate is recommended for treating hypoglycemia in clients with diabetes to quickly raise blood glucose levels without causing hyperglycemia. Consuming too little carbohydrate may not effectively raise blood glucose levels, while consuming too much may lead to a rapid spike followed by a rebound hypoglycemia. Options A and B provide insufficient amounts of carbohydrate, while option D provides excessive carbohydrate, increasing the risk of hyperglycemia. Therefore, option C is the most appropriate choice for effectively treating hypoglycemia in this client.
Which of the ff would help a client with an allergic skin reaction to reduce itching and maintain skin intact? Choose all that apply
- A. Humidifying the environment
- B. Avoiding a skin lubricant
- C. Bathing with a bar soap that contains lye
- D. Wearing cotton gloves, esp during sleep
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Wearing cotton gloves, especially during sleep, helps reduce itching by preventing scratching, which can further irritate the skin. Cotton is a breathable fabric that reduces friction and irritation.
A: Humidifying the environment may help in some cases, but it doesn't directly address the itching or maintaining skin integrity.
B: Avoiding a skin lubricant is not recommended as it can help moisturize the skin and reduce itching.
C: Bathing with a bar soap that contains lye can be harsh and drying, exacerbating the skin reaction.
The nurse understands that labyrinthitis is treated primarily with which of the ff. drug categories?
- A. Antihistamines
- B. Anti-inflammatories
- C. Antispasmotics
- D. Antiemetics
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Antihistamines. Labyrinthitis is an inner ear condition often caused by inflammation or infection. Antihistamines help reduce symptoms like vertigo and dizziness by decreasing inflammation and fluid buildup in the inner ear. Anti-inflammatories (choice B) may help with inflammation but are not as effective for inner ear conditions. Antispasmotics (choice C) are not typically used for treating labyrinthitis. Antiemetics (choice D) are used to control nausea and vomiting, which can be symptoms of labyrinthitis but do not address the underlying cause.
. A client is diagnosed with the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). The nurse should anticipate which laboratory test result?
- A. Decreased serum sodium level
- B. Increased blood urea nitrogen
- C. Decreased serum creatinine level (BUN) level
- D. Increased hematocrit
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased serum sodium level. In SIADH, there is an excessive release of ADH, causing water retention and dilution of sodium in the blood. This leads to hyponatremia. B: Increased blood urea nitrogen and C: Decreased serum creatinine level are not typically associated with SIADH. D: Increased hematocrit is not a typical finding in SIADH, as it is more related to dehydration. Therefore, the most anticipated laboratory test result in a client with SIADH is a decreased serum sodium level due to dilutional hyponatremia.