Mrs. Jenner is a 41-year-old female who is being evaluated for persistent nausea. She had an abdominal CT scan that reported three hepatic hemangiomas ranging from 3 to 5 cm. The AGACNP knows that the appropriate response to this report is to
- A. Arrange for large-bore needle biopsy
- B. Order hepatic ultrasound annually to follow progression
- C. Consult surgery for resection
- D. Document the finding in the patient’s chart
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale:
A needle biopsy is appropriate for definitive diagnosis of hepatic hemangiomas, ruling out other liver lesions. It helps determine if they are benign or malignant. This will guide further management decisions.
Summary:
B: Annual ultrasound is unnecessary for benign hemangiomas.
C: Surgery is not indicated for asymptomatic hepatic hemangiomas.
D: Documenting the finding is important but not the appropriate next step in management.
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Mother-to-child transmission of TB organisms never occurs during labor.
- A. TRUE
- B. FALSE
- C. -
- D. -
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: TB can be transmitted from an infected mother to her child during labor.
Step 2: The TB bacteria can be present in the mother's respiratory secretions.
Step 3: During labor, the baby can inhale these bacteria and contract TB.
Step 4: Therefore, the statement that mother-to-child transmission of TB organisms never occurs during labor is FALSE.
Summary: Option B is correct because it accurately reflects the possibility of mother-to-child transmission of TB during labor. Option A is incorrect as it contradicts the factual information. Options C and D are not applicable as they provide no information.
Mother-to-child transmission of TB organisms never occurs during labor.
- A. TRUE
- B. FALSE
- C. -
- D. -
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: TB can be transmitted through respiratory droplets, not just during labor.
Step 2: Mother with active TB can transmit the bacteria to the child during childbirth.
Step 3: Therefore, the statement that mother-to-child transmission never occurs during labor is false.
Summary: Choice B is correct because TB transmission can occur during labor, making Choice A incorrect. Choices C and D are irrelevant.
Icterus gravis and hydrops fetalis are conditions highly associated with:
- A. Rhesus D incompatibility
- B. ABO incompatibility
- C. Physiological jaundice
- D. Instant perinatal death
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rhesus D incompatibility. Icterus gravis and hydrops fetalis are conditions associated with hemolytic disease of the newborn, caused by Rhesus D incompatibility between the mother and fetus. This occurs when the mother is Rh-negative and the baby is Rh-positive, leading to the production of antibodies by the mother that attack the baby's red blood cells. This can result in severe jaundice (icterus gravis) and excessive fluid accumulation in the fetus (hydrops fetalis).
Summary:
- Choice B (ABO incompatibility) is incorrect because it typically causes less severe jaundice and anemia compared to Rhesus D incompatibility.
- Choice C (Physiological jaundice) is incorrect as it is a common benign condition in newborns due to immature liver function.
- Choice D (Instant perinatal death) is incorrect as it does not specifically relate to the conditions mentioned.
Neonatal injury to nerve roots C8 & T1 causes one of the following
- A. Erb’s palsy
- B. Klumpke’s palsy
- C. Phrenic injury
- D. Radial palsy
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Klumpke's palsy. Neonatal injury to nerve roots C8 & T1 leads to Klumpke's palsy, characterized by paralysis of the lower arm and hand muscles. This occurs due to damage to the lower trunk of the brachial plexus. Erb's palsy (choice A) involves C5 & C6 nerve roots, causing weakness in the shoulder and upper arm. Phrenic injury (choice C) affects the diaphragm, leading to breathing difficulties. Radial palsy (choice D) results from damage to the radial nerve, causing wrist drop and weakness in forearm muscles. Klumpke's palsy specifically matches the description of injury to nerve roots C8 & T1.
Deep transverse arrest is
- A. Where flexion is always well maintained.
- B. Caused by strong uterine contractions throughout labor.
- C. Caused by a sacrum that is well curved.
- D. Where the level of the occiput and the sinciput is the same.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because deep transverse arrest refers to a situation where the fetal head fails to rotate and descend in the pelvis due to the occiput and sinciput being at the same level. This leads to a prolonged labor. Choice A is incorrect because flexion can be inadequate in deep transverse arrest. Choice B is incorrect because it is not solely caused by uterine contractions but rather fetal malposition. Choice C is incorrect because a well-curved sacrum is not a defining factor in deep transverse arrest.