Nalidixic acid (NegGram) is prescribed for a client with a urinary tract infection. On review of the client's record, the nurse notes that the client is taking warfarin sodium (Coumadin) daily. Which prescription should the nurse anticipate for this client?
- A. Discontinuation of warfarin sodium (Coumadin)
- B. A decrease in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage
- C. An increase in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage
- D. A decrease in the usual dose of nalidixic acid (NegGram)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Nalidixic acid can intensify the effects of oral anticoagulants by displacing these agents from binding sites on plasma proteins. When an oral anticoagulant, like warfarin sodium (Coumadin), is combined with nalidixic acid, a decrease in the anticoagulant dosage may be necessary to avoid excessive anticoagulation and potential bleeding risks.
You may also like to solve these questions
Intravenous heparin therapy is prescribed for a client. While implementing this prescription, a nurse ensures that which of the following medications is available on the nursing unit?
- A. Protamine sulfate
- B. Potassium chloride
- C. Phytonadione (vitamin K)
- D. Aminocaproic acid (Amicar)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
A client receives a prescription for methocarbamol (Robaxin), and the nurse reinforces instructions to the client regarding the medication. Which client statement would indicate a need for further instructions?
- A. My urine may turn brown or green.
- B. This medication is prescribed to help relieve my muscle spasms.
- C. If my vision becomes blurred, I don't need to be concerned about it.
- D. I need to call my doctor if I experience nasal congestion from this medication.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
A client is receiving intravenous heparin for a deep vein thrombosis. The healthcare provider should monitor the client for which of the following potential complications?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Bleeding
- D. Hyperkalemia
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Heparin is an anticoagulant, so the primary potential complication is bleeding. The healthcare provider should monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as bruising, hematuria, and gastrointestinal bleeding. Hypertension, tachycardia, and hyperkalemia are not direct complications of heparin therapy.
An older client recently has been taking cimetidine (Tagamet). The nurse monitors the client for which most frequent central nervous system side effect of this medication?
- A. Tremors
- B. Dizziness
- C. Confusion
- D. Hallucinations
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Older clients are particularly vulnerable to central nervous system side effects of cimetidine. The most frequent side effect is confusion. It is crucial for nurses to be vigilant in monitoring for confusion as it can impact the client's safety and well-being. While tremors, dizziness, and hallucinations are possible side effects, confusion is the most common in older clients taking cimetidine.
A client is receiving an intravenous (IV) infusion of an antineoplastic medication. During the infusion, the client complains of pain at the insertion site. The nurse notes redness and swelling at the site, along with a slowed infusion rate. What is the appropriate action for the nurse to take?
- A. Notify the healthcare provider.
- B. Administer pain medication to reduce discomfort.
- C. Apply ice and maintain the infusion rate as prescribed.
- D. Elevate the extremity of the IV site and slow the infusion rate.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When a client complains of pain at the IV insertion site, and there are signs of extravasation such as redness and swelling, it is crucial to notify the healthcare provider immediately. Extravasation of antineoplastic medications can cause tissue damage, pain, and necrosis if they escape into surrounding tissues. Prompt action is necessary to prevent further complications and ensure appropriate management of the situation.