Nokea
Non thrombocytopenic purpura is seen in all except:
- A. vasculitis
- B. uraemia
- C. hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia
- D. SLE
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: SLE. Non-thrombocytopenic purpura is characterized by skin bleeding without low platelet count. SLE does not typically cause this type of purpura, as it primarily affects multiple organs through immune complex deposition. Vasculitis, uraemia, and hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia can all lead to non-thrombocytopenic purpura due to various mechanisms involving blood vessel inflammation, kidney dysfunction, or genetic defects in blood vessel formation, respectively.
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A 12-year-old girl presents to your clinic with significant menstrual bleeding at the onset of menarche and is noted to have a hemoglobin of 9.9, although she is not symptomatic from her anemia. Her mother reports that she has a history of epistaxis when she was a child with some episodes lasting 30 minutes and that she also has heavy menstrual bleeding. Which of the following tests will lead to the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Factor XI level
- B. Factor X level
- C. Factor XIII level
- D. Ristoectin cofactor activity
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Ristoectin cofactor activity. The scenario describes a young girl with significant menstrual bleeding and a history of prolonged epistaxis, suggesting a bleeding disorder. Given the clinical presentation, the most likely diagnosis is von Willebrand disease (vWD), the most common inherited bleeding disorder. Ristocetin cofactor activity is a specific test for vWD, as it assesses the ability of von Willebrand factor to bind to platelets in the presence of ristocetin. Factors XI, X, and XIII are not typically associated with vWD, making choices A, B, and C incorrect. Testing for Factor VIII/von Willebrand factor antigen levels and vWF multimer analysis may also be considered to confirm the diagnosis.
Which of the following is a cause of secondary neutropaenia in adults?
- A. Congenital
- B. Anti-hypertensive drugs
- C. Part of general pancytopaenia
- D. Familial
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Part of general pancytopenia. Secondary neutropenia in adults can occur as part of general pancytopenia, where there is a decrease in all blood cell types. This can be caused by various conditions such as infections, medications, autoimmune disorders, and bone marrow disorders.
Rationale:
A: Congenital is incorrect because congenital neutropenia refers to a condition present at birth, not secondary neutropenia.
B: Anti-hypertensive drugs may cause drug-induced neutropenia, but it is not the primary cause of secondary neutropenia in adults.
D: Familial neutropenia is a genetic disorder that runs in families and is not a common cause of secondary neutropenia in adults.
The following pathological features is true regarding non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL)
- A. Classical Reed-Sternberg (RS) cells are neoplastic cells
- B. B cell phenotype is more common
- C. Contiguous group of lymph nodes are affected
- D. It is not associated with leukemic phase of disease
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because B cell phenotype is more common in non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL). This is supported by the fact that the majority of NHL cases arise from B cells in the lymphoid tissue. Choice A is incorrect as RS cells are characteristic of Hodgkin lymphoma, not NHL. Choice C is incorrect because NHL can involve non-contiguous lymph nodes. Choice D is incorrect because NHL can have a leukemic phase known as leukemic lymphoma.
A nurse should identify that clopidogrel is contraindicated for clients who have which of the following conditions?
- A. Myocardial infarction
- B. Peptic ulcer disease
- C. Pancreatitis
- D. Myasthenia gravis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that can increase the risk of bleeding. Patients with peptic ulcer disease are at a higher risk of gastrointestinal bleeding, so clopidogrel is contraindicated. Myocardial infarction, pancreatitis, and myasthenia gravis are not contraindications for clopidogrel use.
A nurse is caring for four clients. After reviewing today's laboratory results, which client would the nurse assess first?
- A. Client with an international normalized ratio of 2.8
- B. Client with a platelet count of 128,000/mm3 (128 x 109/L).
- C. Client with a prothrombin time (PT) of 28 seconds
- D. Client with a red blood cell count of 5.1 million/mcl. (5.1 x 1012/L)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Client with a prothrombin time (PT) of 28 seconds. A PT measures the time it takes for blood to clot, indicating the client's clotting ability. A PT of 28 seconds is prolonged, suggesting a potential bleeding risk. This client should be assessed first to prevent any complications related to inadequate clotting.
A: Client with an international normalized ratio of 2.8 - Although an elevated INR indicates a risk of bleeding, it is not as time-sensitive as a prolonged PT.
B: Client with a platelet count of 128,000/mm3 - While low platelets can lead to bleeding, a prolonged PT is more critical for immediate assessment.
D: Client with a red blood cell count of 5.1 million/mcl - This value is within normal range and does not indicate an urgent issue related to clotting.