Nurse Harper observes Evelyn has knowledge deficit regarding fetal nutrition. Nurse Harper has to explain that the MAIN SOURCE of nutrition for the baby is which of the following?
- A. Amniotic fluid
- B. Uterus
- C. Placenta
- D. Chorionic villi
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The main source of nutrition for the baby during pregnancy is the placenta. The placenta is an organ that develops inside the uterus during pregnancy and provides essential nutrients and oxygen from the mother's blood to the baby through the umbilical cord. It acts as a barrier, protecting the baby from harmful substances while allowing necessary nutrients to pass through. The amniotic fluid serves as a protective cushion for the baby, the uterus provides the space for the baby to grow, and chorionic villi are small, hair-like structures on the placenta that aid in the exchange of nutrients and waste between the mother and the baby. However, the primary source of nutrition for the baby is the placenta, making option C the correct answer in this scenario.
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During theh history taking, which of the following is the MOST common symptom of Scabies that the family would report to Nurse Emma?
- A. Rashes
- B. Scaling
- C. Swelling
- D. Itchiness
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The most common symptom of scabies that the family would report to Nurse Emma is itchiness. Scabies is a contagious skin condition caused by the Sarcoptes scabiei mite, which burrows into the skin and lays eggs, leading to intense itching, especially at night. The itching is a result of the body's allergic reaction to the mites and their waste products. While rashes, scaling, and swelling can also occur with scabies, the hallmark and most bothersome symptom experienced by individuals with scabies is the intense itchiness, making it the most common symptom reported by affected individuals or their families during the history-taking process.
A patient expresses fear of the unknown regarding an upcoming surgical procedure. What is the nurse's best response?
- A. Dismiss the patient's fear and assure them that the procedure is routine.
- B. Provide the patient with accurate information about the surgical procedure and what to expect.
- C. Ignore the patient's fear and proceed with scheduling the procedure.
- D. Tell the patient that fear of the unknown is irrational and unfounded.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The nurse's best response to a patient expressing fear of the unknown regarding an upcoming surgical procedure is to provide the patient with accurate information about the surgical procedure and what to expect. This approach empowers the patient with knowledge and helps alleviate anxiety by demystifying the unknown. By educating the patient about the procedure, potential risks, and postoperative care, the nurse can help the patient feel more prepared and in control of the situation. It is crucial for healthcare providers to address patient fears with compassion, understanding, and information to support the patient through the surgical process.
A patient with a history of heart failure is prescribed a beta-blocker. Which assessment finding indicates a therapeutic effect of beta-blocker therapy?
- A. Decreased heart rate
- B. Increased blood pressure
- C. Elevated respiratory rate
- D. Worsening dyspnea Pharmacology
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Beta-blockers are medications commonly used in the management of heart failure. One of the therapeutic effects of beta-blockers is to decrease the heart rate. By blocking the action of adrenaline on the heart, beta-blockers help to slow down the heart rate, reduce the workload on the heart, and improve overall heart function. In patients with heart failure, a decreased heart rate is a favorable outcome as it can help improve cardiac output and reduce symptoms of heart failure such as fatigue and shortness of breath. Monitoring the heart rate is an important assessment parameter to evaluate the effectiveness of beta-blocker therapy in patients with heart failure. Therefore, a decreased heart rate would indicate a therapeutic effect of beta-blocker therapy in this patient.
After 3 years being assigned in the Operating Room, Merle in interested to actively join which appropriate professional organization?
- A. ORNAP
- B. NLGN
- C. ADPCN
- D. APO
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: ORNAP stands for Operating Room Nurses Association of the Philippines, which is an appropriate professional organization for Merle to actively join after 3 years of experience in the Operating Room. ORNAP is dedicated to promoting professional growth and development, advancing the standards of perioperative nursing practice, and providing a platform for networking and collaboration among operating room nurses in the Philippines. By becoming a member of ORNAP, Merle can stay updated on the latest trends and best practices in perioperative nursing, participate in continuing education opportunities, and connect with colleagues in the same field to enhance her skills and knowledge.
A patient presents with sudden-onset, painless vision loss in the right eye. Fundoscopic examination reveals a cherry-red spot at the macula and attenuated retinal vessels. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
- A. Central retinal artery occlusion
- B. Central retinal vein occlusion
- C. Retinal detachment
- D. Acute angle-closure glaucoma
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The presentation of sudden-onset, painless vision loss in the right eye with a cherry-red spot at the macula and attenuated retinal vessels is classic for central retinal artery occlusion (CRAO). In this condition, the blockage of the central retinal artery results in severe ischemia of the retina, leading to rapid and profound vision loss. The cherry-red spot at the macula is a result of preserved choroidal circulation contrasting with the pale, ischemic retina. Attenuated retinal vessels are also commonly observed due to decreased blood flow. Prompt evaluation and management are critical in CRAO to potentially restore some vision and prevent further ischemic damage to the retina.