Nokea
Nurse Norma’s discharge teaching for Mr. Aurelio, diagnosed with heart failure, should stress the significance of:
- A. maintaining a sedentary lifestyle most of the day
- B. obtain daily weights at the same time
- C. walking 2 miles daily
- D. maintaining a high fiber die
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: obtaining daily weights at the same time. This is crucial in monitoring fluid retention, a common issue in heart failure patients. Daily weights help detect early signs of fluid buildup. Option A is incorrect as physical activity is important for heart failure patients. Option C is incorrect as walking 2 miles daily may be too strenuous for some heart failure patients. Option D is incorrect as a high fiber diet is beneficial, but monitoring fluid retention is more critical in this case.
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Why must clients who will undergo diagnostic skin test avoid taking antihistamine or cold preparations for at least 48-72 hrs before testing?
- A. Antihistamines may increase the potential for excessive bleeding
- B. Antihistamines may aggravate the allergic reaction
- C. Antihistamines may increase the potential for false negative results
- D. Antihistamines may cause wheezing
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because antihistamines can suppress the immune response that the skin test is designed to detect, leading to false negative results. By inhibiting the body's allergic response, antihistamines can mask the presence of an allergy, giving the false impression that the individual is not allergic to a particular substance. This can lead to misdiagnosis and improper treatment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because antihistamines do not affect bleeding, aggravate allergic reactions, or cause wheezing in the context of a skin test.
A patient is scheduled for an MRI and asks what to expect. Which of the following responses by the nurse is best?
- A. “It is the measurement of muscle contraction after stimulation by tiny needle electrodes.”
- B. “Electrodes will be placed on your scalp to measure activity of the brain.”
- C. “A scan of the brain will be done after injection of radioisotope.”
- D. “It is a noninvasive test that uses magnetic energy to visualize internal parts.”
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because an MRI is a noninvasive imaging test that uses magnetic energy to produce detailed images of internal body parts. This explanation is accurate and informative, reassuring the patient.
A is incorrect because it describes electromyography (EMG), not MRI. B is incorrect as it describes electroencephalography (EEG), not MRI. C is incorrect because it describes a nuclear medicine test, not MRI. In summary, only option D provides a correct and relevant description of what to expect during an MRI.
Mr. Reyea complains of hearing ringing noises. The nurse recognizes that this assessment suggests injury of the
- A. Frontal lobe
- B. Six cranial nerve (abducent)
- C. Occipital lobe
- D. Eight Cranial Nerve (Vestibulocochlear)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Eight Cranial Nerve (Vestibulocochlear). Mr. Reyea's complaint of hearing ringing noises indicates a potential issue with his auditory function, which is primarily governed by the Vestibulocochlear nerve. This nerve is responsible for transmitting sound and balance information from the inner ear to the brain. The other choices, A: Frontal lobe, B: Six cranial nerve (abducent), and C: Occipital lobe, are not directly associated with auditory function or the perception of ringing noises in the ear.
Which organ(s) is/are most at risk for dysfunction in a patient with a potassium level of 6.3 mEq/L?
- A. Lungs
- B. Liver
- C. Kidneys
- D. Heart
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Heart. A potassium level of 6.3 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia, which can lead to cardiac arrhythmias and even cardiac arrest. The heart is highly sensitive to potassium levels, as it plays a crucial role in regulating the heart's electrical activity. Elevated potassium levels can disrupt this balance, leading to serious cardiac complications.
Summary:
A: Lungs - Not directly affected by potassium levels.
B: Liver - Not directly affected by potassium levels.
C: Kidneys - Kidneys regulate potassium levels but are not the most at risk for dysfunction in this scenario.
The examiner shines a light in the patient’s eyes and notes that the pupils are round and constrict from 4 to 2 mm bilaterally. Next, the examiner asks the patient to focus on a far object, then on the examiner’s finger as it is brought from 3 feet distance to 5 inches distance. The pupils constrict bilaterally and the eyes turn inward. Which of the ff. would be the correct documentation of these findings?
- A. Pupils 2 mm
- B. PERRLA
- C. Pupils constricted
- D. Pupils normal
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: PERRLA, which stands for Pupils Equal, Round, Reactive to Light, and Accommodation. This documentation reflects a comprehensive assessment of the pupils' response to light and accommodation. The pupils constricting from 4 to 2 mm bilaterally in response to light indicates they are reactive. Additionally, the eyes turning inward when focusing on a near object shows accommodation.
Choice A is not the best option because it only mentions the pupil size without capturing other important aspects of the assessment. Choice C is too vague, as it does not specify the exact response of the pupils. Choice D is incorrect because it does not provide a detailed description of the pupils' response to both light and accommodation. Therefore, option B is the most appropriate choice as it encompasses all the necessary components of the assessment.